AIRLAW-BNC-MODULE1

AIRLAW-BNC-MODULE1

1. Visual Flight Rules Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the

a) ceiling is less than 1 500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
b) ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
c) ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 8 km.
d) ceiling is less than 2 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.

2. Authority The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the:

a) Pilot-in-command.
b) Operator.
c) aircraft owner.
d) ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace.

3. Avoidance of collisions The highest priority for landing has:

a) a military aircraft.
b) an Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention.
c) an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing).
d) an aircraft on a diplomatic flight (Head of state).

4. Visual Flight Rules An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least

a) a distance from cloud of 1000 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.
b) a distance from cloud of 600 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.
c) a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.
d) a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 8 km.

5. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10 000 feet MSL are:

a) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility
b) 2 000 metres horizontally, 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility
c) 1 mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility
d) clear of clouds; 8 km visibility

6. Visual Flight Rules Above an altitude of 10000 ft, flights operating within airspace Class "G" in accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima:

a) a distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5 km.
b) a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km.
c) a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5 km.
d) a distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km.

7. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:

a) 3%
b) 10%
c) 2%
d) 5%

8. Interception An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A

a) Code 7700.
b) Code 7000.
c) Code 7500.
d) Code 7600.

9. Interception An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio-communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the frequency

a) 121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 125.5 MHz.
b) 243 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 125.5 MHz.
c) 121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 282.8 MHz.
d) 121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 243 MHz.

10. Interception, DAY or NIGHT Which manoeuvre will be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot of this aircraft wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED"?

a) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a counter-clockwise pattern for aeroplanes, in a clockwise pattern for helicopter.
b) An abrupt break-away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
c) Rocking aircraft twice in front of the intercepting aircraft, after acknowledgement by intercepted aircraft a slow level turn (normally to the left).
d) Rocking aircraft and flashing navigational lights at regular intervals.

11. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?

a) Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
b) Switching on and off four times the landing lights
c) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
d) Switching on and off three times the landing lights

12. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?

a) You land
b) Descend for landing
c) Descend
d) Let down

13. If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?

a) UNABLE TO COMPLY
b) CAN NOT
c) NOT POSSIBLE
d) CAN NOT COMPLY

14. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:

a) The airport is unsafe, do not land
b) Give way to other aircraft in emergency
c) Continue circling and wait for further instructions
d) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

15. On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:

a) aircraft taking off or about to take off
b) all vehicles moving on the apron except the "follow me" vehicle
c) other vehicles and pedestrians
d) other converging aircraft

16. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?

a) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
b) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft
c) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course
d) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

17. Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?

a) Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction "A" is approaching
b) Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right
c) Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left
d) Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is approaching

18. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?

a) Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
b) If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
c) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
d) Inform the ATC unit immediately

19. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

a) Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
b) Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
c) Squawk 7700
d) The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit

20. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

a) Crossing arms extended above his head
b) Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground
c) Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
d) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist

21. An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:

a) continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.
b) land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing
c) adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
d) descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations

22. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:

a) Come back and land.
b) Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
c) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
d) Dangerous airfield. Do not land.

23. Definitions (ICAO Doc 8168) What is: A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track. The tracks are not reciprocal.

a) Procedure turn
b) Base turn
c) Race track
d) Reversal procedure

24. OCA An OCA is referenced to:

a) the relevant Runway Threshold
b) the Aerodrome Reference Point
c) an Aerodrome Elevation
d) Mean Sea Level

25. Definitions What is: A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track:

a) Reversal track.
b) Base turn.
c) Race track.
d) Procedure turn.

26. Circling approach One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:

a) The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight.
b) The horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
c) The required visual references have been established and can be maintained.
d) The Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.

27. Holding procedures If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should:

a) advise ATC as early as possible.
b) follow the radio communication failure procedure.
c) execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his aeroplane.
d) remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding.

28. Holding procedures (outbound time) The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions is:

a) 1 minute.
b) 30 seconds.
c) 1,5 minutes.
d) 2 minutes.

29. Holding procedures (entry) You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052Â°. You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232Â°. Select the appropriate entry procedure:

a) parallel or direct.
b) direct only.
c) offset only.
d) either offset or parallel.

30. Holding procedures (outbound time) The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is:

a) 1 minute 30 seconds.
b) 2 minutes.
c) 2 minutes 30 seconds.
d) 1 minute.

31. Altimeter setting (change during climb) On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the:

a) transition level.
b) level specified by ATC.
c) transition layer.
d) transition altitude.

32. AIP Which part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?

a) METEO
b) AD
c) ENR
d) GEN

33. AIP Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available?

a) AD
b) GEN
c) ENR
d) FAL

34. AIP Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas?

a) The AIP does not contain this information
b) ENR
c) GEN
d) AD

35. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:

a) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).
b) NOTAM.
c) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).
d) AIRAC.

36. A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:

a) An AIRAC.
b) A NOTAM RAC.
c) An ATS NOTAM.
d) An Advisory NOTAM.

37. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:

a) AIP, NOTAMs, Circular and AIRAC.
b) Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.
c) Only AIP and NOTAMs.
d) Only NOTAMs and Circulars.

38. "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.

a) Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
b) Precision approach runways in general.
c) Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
d) Precision approach runways category I, II and III.

39. "Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be:

a) 18 m.
b) 15 m.
c) 25 m.
d) 23 m.

40. "TODA" take-off distance available is:

a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
b) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way and clearway (if provided).
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way.
d) The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

41. "Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to:

a) Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
b) Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.
c) Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
d) Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.

42. Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?

a) Code letter "C".
b) Code letter "B".
c) Code letter "E".
d) Code letter "D".

43. According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of:

a) 15 m up to but not including 24 m.
b) 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
c) 24 m up to but not including 36 m.
d) 36 m up to but not including 52 m.

44. In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify:

a) The length of the aircraft fuselage.
b) The width of the aircraft wing.
c) Only the aircraft wing span.
d) The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.

45. The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:

a) 2B.
b) 4F.
c) 5E.
d) 6D.

46. According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of:

a) 1 500 m.
b) 1 200 m.
c) 1 600 m.
d) 1 800 m and over.

47. The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:

a) An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
b) An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
c) A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
d) A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.

48. "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:

a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way (if stop way provided) .
b) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way and clearway (if provided) .
c) The length of the runway plus the length of stop way available (if stop way provided).
d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.

49. How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) None.

50. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:

a) Fixed lights showing white.
b) Fixed lights showing yellow.
c) Fixed lights showing blue.
d) Fixed lights showing green.

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