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AIRLAW-BNC-MODULE2
1.
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
a) Flashing lights showing variable green.
b) Flashing lights showing variable white.
c) Fixed lights showing variable green.
d) Fixed lights showing variable white.
2.
The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
a) Precision Approach Path Indicator.
b) Precision Approach Power Index.
c) Precision Approach Power Indicator.
d) Precision Approach Path Index.
3.
The "PAPI" shall consist of:
a) A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
b) Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
c) A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
d) Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
4.
In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
a) On or close to the approach slope.
b) Only on the approach slope.
c) Below the approach slope.
d) Above the approach slope.
5.
In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:
a) By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways.
b) By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R".
c) By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and the central has no letter.
d) By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
6.
Taxiway edge lights shall be:
a) Fixed showing yellow.
b) Fixed showing blue.
c) Fixed showing green.
d) Flashing showing blue.
7.
Runway end lights shall be:
a) Fixed lights showing variable red.
b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
c) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
d) Fixed lights showing variable white.
8.
Runway threshold lights shall be:
a) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
c) Fixed lights green colours.
d) Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
9.
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
a) Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
b) Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.
c) Flashing white.
d) Fixed lights showing variable white.
10.
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
a) Fixed green.
b) Flashing green.
c) Flashing white.
d) Fixed white.
11.
The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
a) White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.
b) Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
c) White colour identification given by Morse Code.
d) Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.
12.
In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
13.
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
a) 250 m.
b) 200 m.
c) 150 m.
d) 300 m.
14.
High intensity obstacle lights should be:
a) Flashing red.
b) Fixed orange.
c) Fixed red.
d) Flashing white.
15.
Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
a) Flashing blue.
b) Fixed red or preferably orange.
c) Fixed red or preferably blue.
d) Flashing red or preferably yellow.
16.
Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
a) Fixed orange.
b) Flashing red.
c) Flashing yellow.
d) Fixed red.
17.
The runway edge lights shall be:
a) red
b) green
c) white
d) blue
18.
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
a) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
b) Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
c) Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
d) An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
19.
The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
a) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight.
b) The longest aeroplane maximum width only
c) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.
d) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane.
20.
The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
a) The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.
b) The operator has no obligation.
c) The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator.
d) The stated above is correct.
21.
Search and Rescue The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue service is the:
a) Area Control Centre
b) Alerting Centre
c) Flight Information Centre
d) Rescue Co-ordination Centre
22.
Accident, incident notification and reporting After landing, while taxiing towards the apron, the landing gear of your aircraft sinks into a hole. No persons are injured, but the aircraft sustains structural damage. As a consequence you have to cancel the onward flight.
a) Since there is no person injured and the flight is terminated, a damage report has to be made out with the services of the aerodrome in charge of the runway and taxiways for the insurance company.
b) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
c) This is an irregularity in the operation. The crew must inform the operator of the aerodrome and establish a report.
d) This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.
23.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
a) Flight Information Region.
b) Control zone.
c) Advisory airspace.
d) Control area.
24.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
a) Control area.
b) Advisory airspace.
c) Air traffic zone.
d) Control zone.
25.
ATS airspace's where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:
a) Class D.
b) Class B.
c) Class A.
d) Class E.
26.
Aerodrome traffic is:
a) All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
b) All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
c) All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
d) All traffic on the manoeuvring area.
27.
Air Traffic Service unit means:
a) Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Services reporting offices.
b) Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices.
c) Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.
d) Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres.
28.
Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
a) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower.
b) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.
c) The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.
d) The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.
29.
Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
a) Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.
b) Flight Information Service only.
c) Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
d) Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
30.
Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.
b) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.
c) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.
d) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
31.
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
a) 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
b) 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
c) 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
d) 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
32.
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
a) 500 metres.
b) 200 metres.
c) 150 metres.
d) 300 metres.
33.
The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
a) Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower.
b) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
c) Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
d) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
34.
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
a) Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
b) Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
c) Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
d) Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
35.
Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
a) Providing advisory service
b) Providing flight Information Service
c) Achieving separation between IFR flights
d) Achieving separation between controlled flights
36.
Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
a) Providing alerting services
b) Providing advisory services
c) Providing flight Information Service
d) Achieving separation between controlled flights
37.
You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?
a) The take off clearance is expected at 0920
b) If not airborne until 0920, a new clearance has to be issued
c) Do not take off before 0920
d) After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
38.
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
a) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value
b) Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use
c) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
d) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR ; otherwise hourly
39.
When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:
a) operational air traffic control centres
b) flight information or control organisations
c) air traffic co-ordination services
d) search and rescue co-ordination centres
40.
The Alerting Service is provided by:
a) The Area Control Centres.
b) The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
c) Only by ATC units.
d) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.
41.
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
a) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.
b) uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
c) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
d) uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.
42.
A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case:
a) The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.
b) There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
c) The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.
d) The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
43.
Alert phase is defined as follows:
a) A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
b) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
c) A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.
d) An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger.
44.
Separation methods and minima - ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC INFORMATION Essential traffic is:
a) Controlled Traffic separated from other controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima.
b) Controlled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled flights within advisory airspace.
c) Controlled Traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima.
d) Uncontrolled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled VFR flights within advisory airspace.
45.
General provisions - change from IFR to VFR A change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space and when
a) the position of the change has been noted on the ATC flight plan. The cancellation of the IFR flight will then be made automatically by ATC.
b) ATC invites the PIC to change from IFR to VFR.
c) the change is initiated by the PIC with a message containing the specific expression "cancelling my IFR flight".
d) the PIC has requested and obtained an ATC CLR for the change and has filed a special VFR flight plan.
46.
General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of:
a) 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.
b) 60 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.
c) 30 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
d) 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
47.
General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc4444) A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed.
a) 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position, 6) time over.
b) 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) flight level or altitude, 4) time, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.
c) 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.
d) 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) true air speed, 5) flight level or altitude, 6) next position and time over.
48.
General provisions - Responsibility for terrain clearance Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
a) The aircraft operator.
b) The pilot-in-command.
c) The ATS reporting office accepting the flight plan.
d) The ATC.
49.
General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when the delay is exceeding the original
a) estimated off-block time by 30 minutes.
b) estimated departure time by 30 minutes.
c) estimated departure time by 60 minutes.
d) estimated off-block time by 60 minutes.
50.
Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC?
a) Maintain the assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome where VMC conditions prevail.
b) Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, carry out level changes as indicated in the filed ATC flight plan, start the approach to the flight plan destination at the planned ETA.
c) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit.
d) Continue to fly in VMC and return to the aerodrome of departure.
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