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AIRLAW-BNC-MODULE3
1.
General provisions - amended clearance If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft
a) The PIC may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
b) The PIC may propose another clearance. ATC has to amend the clearance in accordance with the pilots request.
c) The PIC has to accept the ATC clearance. The clearance is based on the flight plan filed with ATC.
d) The PIC may request an amended clearance from the ATC. Amended clearances will only be given when VMC prevails.
2.
Separation - VMC and own separation The "Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological conditions" may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft. The conditions are:
a) Airspace Class D and E, VMC, hours of daylight
b) Airspace Class C, D, VMC
c) Airspace Class C, VMC, hours of daylight
d) Airspace Class B. C, D and E, VMC
3.
Separation Methods and Minima - General What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC?
a) Time separation and track separation.
b) Vertical, horizontal and angular separation.
c) Composite separation.
d) Vertical and horizontal separation.
4.
Separation methods and minima - vertical separation The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
a) 1000 feet (300 m).
b) 2500 feet (750 m).
c) 500 feet (150 m).
d) 2000 feet (600 m).
5.
Separation methods and minima - vertical separation The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
a) 1000 feet (300 m).
b) 4000 feet (1200 m).
c) 500 feet (150 m).
d) 2000 feet (600 m).
6.
Communications Failure - Flight Procedures You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: "Turn immediately, fly heading 050° until further advised". At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again.
a) You have to return to your current flight plan route.
b) You continue on Heading 050 for 15 minutes.
c) You continue on Heading 050 for 30 minutes.
d) You continue on Heading 050.
7.
Separation methods and minima - vertical separation Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between aircraft flying in the same direction is:
a) 1 500 feet.
b) 4 000 feet.
c) 2 000 feet.
d) 3 000 feet.
8.
Separation in the vicinity of aerodromes - timed approaches A "Timed Approach Procedure" may be utilized as necessary in order to expedite the approaches of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained by requesting aircraft to
a) notify the time when passing a specified point.
b) keep distance and time equal between aircraft in the approach.
c) maintain a specified airspeed during the approach procedure.
d) pass a specified point inbound at the previously notified time.
9.
General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearance When does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain?
a) When a flight in accordance with IFR is vectored by radar.
b) ATS only provides prevention when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.
c) ATS never prevent collisions with terrain.
d) Always when ATS are provided.
10.
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
a) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
b) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights.
c) To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots.
d) To conduct surveillance radar approaches.
11.
The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
a) To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment.
b) To provide radar separation.
c) To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.
d) To assist aircraft on the location storms.
12.
When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
a) not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.
b) Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR.
c) Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.
d) Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.
13.
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
a) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR and VFR flights.
b) To conduct precision radar approach (PAR).
c) To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.
d) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
14.
Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
a) 2 NM.
b) 3 NM.
c) 4 NM.
d) 5 NM.
15.
When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
a) Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON".
b) To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF".
c) To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STDBY".
d) To request pilot to set transponder on position "ON".
16.
Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
a) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
b) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.
c) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
d) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.
17.
Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?
a) Code 7700.
b) Code 7500.
c) Code 2000.
d) Code 7600.
18.
Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?
a) ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.
b) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
c) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
d) You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
19.
What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway?
a) You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
b) Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
c) Radar Service is terminated.
d) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
20.
The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed:
a) 31th of December the same year
b) 30th of October the same year
c) 15th of October the same year
d) 30th of April the following year
21.
Abbreviations What does the abbreviation OIS mean? (Doc 8168)
a) Obstruction in surface.
b) Obstacle in surface.
c) Obstacle identification surface.
d) Obstacle identification slope.
22.
Abbreviations In Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168)
a) Distance error in routing.
b) Displaced end of runway.
c) Direct entry route.
d) Departure end of runway.
23.
Instrument Departure Procedure – Wind correction Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to:
a) request from ATC an adequate heading to cater for wind direction and strength.
b) ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track.
c) correct the track for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
d) request a clearance from ATC with regards to a wind correction to be applied.
24.
Departure procedure – Design The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is/are:
a) airspace restrictions applicable and in force.
b) availability of navigation aids.
c) ATC availability and requirements.
d) the terrain surrounding the aerodrome.
25.
Instrument Departure Procedures – Obstacle Clearance The minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
a) 3.3 % gradient.
b) 35 ft.
c) 0 ft.
d) 0.8 % gradient.
26.
Standard Instrument Departure Procedures – Straight Departures A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than:
a) 15°.
b) 45°.
c) 30°.
d) 12.5°.
27.
Holding procedures – Offset Entry Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:
a) 1 minute.
b) 1 minute 30 seconds.
c) 3 minutes.
d) 2 minutes.
28.
Arrival and Approach segments, General What are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure?
a) Initial, intermediate, final.
b) Descend, holding arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.
c) Arrival, holding, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.
d) Arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.
29.
Approach Procedures –Arrival and Approach Segments The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least:
a) 600m (1968 ft).
b) 300m (984 ft).
c) 450m (1476 ft).
d) 150m (492 ft).
30.
Approach procedures, Arrival and Approach Segments – Intermediate approach segment What is the minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
a) 150m (492 ft) reducing to 0 m.
b) 450m (1476 ft) reducing to 150 m (492 ft).
c) 300 m (984 ft) reducing to 0 m.
d) 300m (984 ft) reducing to 150 m (492 ft).
31.
Approach procedures – Arrival and approach segments In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
a) Initial approach segment.
b) Final approach segment.
c) Arrival segment.
d) Intermediate approach segment.
32.
Approach procedures – Final approach segment In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
a) IF.
b) FAP.
c) FAF.
d) MAP.
33.
Approach procedures – final approach segment In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path interception occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
a) 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
b) 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).
c) 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
d) 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
34.
Approach procedures – Final approach segment - precision approach - ILS The ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline more than:
a) One and a half of a scale deflection after being established on the track.
b) One full scale deflection after being established on the track.
c) Half a scale deflection after being established on the track.
d) A quarter of a scale deflection after being established on the track.
35.
Approach Procedures – Missed Approach – Phases A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases?
a) Initial and final.
b) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
c) Initial, intermediate and final.
d) Arrival, intermediate and final.
36.
Approach Procedures – Circling The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
a) Contact approach.
b) Aerodrome traffic pattern.
c) Visual approach.
d) Visual manoeuvring (circling).
37.
Approach Procedures – Circling It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:
a) Permits circling only in VMC.
b) Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
c) Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
d) Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
38.
Approach Procedures – Visual Flight Manoeuvre - Circling A circling approach is:
a) A visual flight manoeuvre to be performed when radar vectoring is available.
b) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
c) A visual flight manoeuvre that may be carried out as long as visual ground contact can be maintained.
d) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway environment in sight while at MDA/H.
39.
Holding Procedures - Entry Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
a) 15°.
b) 5°.
c) 20°.
d) 10°.
40.
Holding Procedures – Buffer Area How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area?
a) 5 km.
b) 5 NM.
c) 3 NM.
d) 3 km.
41.
Altimeter setting procedures – Transition Altitude The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than:
a) 2500 ft.
b) 1000 ft.
c) 3000 ft.
d) 1500 ft.
42.
Altimeter setting procedures – Transition Level The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to be reported:
a) According to pilot's choice.
b) as Flight Level.
c) as Height.
d) as Altitude.
43.
SSR – Transponder When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:
a) Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
b) Only when directed by ATC.
c) At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
d) Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
44.
SSR – Transponder When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode
a) only when directed by ATC.
b) regardless of ATC instructions.
c) unless otherwise directed by ATC.
d) only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
45.
SSR – Transponder When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code
a) 7000
b) 7600
c) 7700
d) 7500
46.
SSR – Transponder Pilots shall not SQUAK IDENT unless they:
a) operate outside controlled airspace.
b) are requested by ATC.
c) operate within controlled airspace.
d) operate a transponder with Mode C.
47.
SSR – Transponder When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall:
a) use the word ROGER.
b) use the word WILCO.
c) read back the code to be set and SQUAK IDENT.
d) read back the mode and code to be set.
48.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
a) 5 minutes.
b) 10 minutes.
c) 3 minutes.
d) 15 minutes.
49.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
a) 3 minutes.
b) 5 minutes.
c) 15 minutes.
d) 10 minutes.
50.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
a) 10 minutes.
b) 6 minutes.
c) 3 minutes.
d) 5 minutes.
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