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AIRLAW-BNC-MODULE4
1.
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
a) 10 minutes.
b) 3 minutes.
c) 2 minutes.
d) 5 minutes.
2.
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
a) 8 minutes.
b) 10 minutes.
c) 3 minutes.
d) 5 minutes.
3.
When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
a) 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
b) 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
c) 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
d) 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
4.
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:
a) 5 NM.
b) 20 NM.
c) 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
d) 10 NM.
5.
The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:
a) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
b) 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
c) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
d) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
6.
A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way-point. This minimum is:
a) 60 NM.
b) 50 NM.
c) 80 NM.
d) 20 NM.
7.
A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as:
a) B and C.
b) B, C and D.
c) B, C, D and E.
d) B.
8.
One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
a) 15° immediately after take-off.
b) 45° immediately after take-off.
c) 25° immediately after take-off.
d) 30° immediately after take-off.
9.
Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
a) The preceding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
b) The preceding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
c) The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
d) The preceding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
10.
When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
a) 15 degrees.
b) 25 degrees.
c) 20 degrees.
d) 30 degrees.
11.
The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
a) 5 NM.
b) 2.5 NM.
c) 3 NM.
d) 2 NM.
12.
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:
a) 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.
b) 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
c) 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
d) 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
13.
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
a) +/- 250 ft.
b) +/- 300 ft.
c) +/- 200 ft.
d) +/- 500 ft.
14.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
a) 3.0 NM.
b) 5.0 NM.
c) 3.5 NM.
d) 10.0 NM.
15.
The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
a) +/- 300 ft.
b) +/- 150 ft.
c) +/- 250 ft.
d) +/- 200 ft.
16.
An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
a) +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
b) +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
c) +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
d) +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
17.
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:
a) More than 300 ft.
b) More than 200 ft.
c) 300 ft.
d) +/- 300 ft.
18.
The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:
a) 5.0 NM.
b) 2.0 NM.
c) 1.5 NM.
d) 3.0 NM.
19.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
a) 5 NM.
b) 8 NM.
c) 10 NM.
d) 6 NM.
20.
An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last:
a) 2 NM.
b) 4 NM.
c) 3 NM.
d) 1 NM.
21.
When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
a) 2 NM from touchdown.
b) 2.5 NM from touchdown.
c) 3 NM from touchdown.
d) 1 NM from touchdown.
22.
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
a) +/- 20 kt.
b) +/- 15 kt.
c) +/- 10 kt.
d) +/- 8 kt.
23.
The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed:
a) 3 NM from the threshold on final approach.
b) 2 NM from the threshold on final approach.
c) 4 NM from the threshold on final approach.
d) 5 NM from the threshold on final approach.
24.
Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service:
a) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified.
b) need to file a flight plan
c) may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
d) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service.
25.
Search and Rescue The colour of droppable containers and streamers for medical supply and first aid equipment is:
a) Black
b) Yellow
c) Red
d) Blue
26.
The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:
a) Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
b) Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.
c) Black for food and water.
d) Red for food and water.
27.
Search and Rescue The colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water is:
a) Blue
b) Red
c) Black
d) Yellow
28.
The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
a) Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
b) A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
c) Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
d) A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
29.
In accordance with annex 1, when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorisation:
a) Is only considered for PPL.
b) Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
c) Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.
d) Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.
30.
The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
a) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
b) binding for all member states
c) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
d) binding for all air line companies with international traffic
31.
The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
a) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
b) limitation of the operator's liability for damage caused to passengers and goods transported
c) the security system at airports
d) operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation
32.
Altimeter setting procedures – transition altitude / level In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical position of aircraft shall be expressed in term of:
a) altitude above mean sea level at or below the transition altitude
b) altitude above mean sea level at or above the transition altitude
c) flight level at or below the transition level
d) flight level at or below the transition altitude
33.
Altimeter setting procedures – Transition Layer When flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
a) altitude during climb
b) either altitude or flight level during climb
c) flight level during descent
d) altitude during descent
34.
Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system?
a) 3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
b) 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit
c) 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit
d) 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
35.
The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
a) The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
b) The aircraft is subject to positive control
c) The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
d) Position reports may be omitted
36.
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
a) 1000 feet
b) 1500 feet
c) 2000 feet
d) 500 feet
37.
Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
a) at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions
b) on the initiative of the aircraft commander
c) as instructed by an air traffic control unit
d) when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC
38.
Approach procedures – Circling The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around:
a) Make a turn of 90 degrees towards the runway and try to regain visual contact.
b) If you have other visual cues of the aerodrome environment, continue with visual ground contact.
c) Turn towards the runway, maintain altitude and request ATC instructions.
d) Make an initial climbing turn towards the runway and initiate the missed approach.
39.
Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?
a) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention
b) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
c) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses
d) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
40.
Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption?
a) the Council
b) the Assembly
c) the Regional Air Navigation meeting
d) the Air Navigation Commission
41.
You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL
a) With a PPL plus flight instructor rating
b) With a valid licence plus flight instructor rating
c) With a CPL
d) With a PPL plus CPL theory
42.
The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:
a) 1 year
b) 6 months
c) 2 years
d) 5 years
43.
AIP Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location Indicators"?
a) AD
b) ENR
c) LOC
d) GEN
44.
The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is:
a) 17 years
b) 21 years
c) 16 years
d) 18 years
45.
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
a) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
b) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
c) 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
d) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
46.
Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?
a) Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: required ;
b) Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: not required
c) Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required ;
d) Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: required ;
47.
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are:
a) 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;
b) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;
c) No minima, VFR flights are not permitted
d) 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds ;
48.
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will:
a) Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination ;
b) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
c) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
d) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;
49.
An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised?
a) 2nd freedom
b) 3rd freedom
c) 4th freedom
d) 1st freedom
50.
Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
a) 15 knots at any stage
b) 25 knots at any stage
c) 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
d) 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold
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