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AIRLAW-BNC-MODULE5
1.
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II:
a) 900m
b) 300m
c) 600m
d) 150m
2.
What is a "barrette"?
a) a CAT II or III holding position.
b) three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.
c) a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
d) a high obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
3.
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at:
a) 300 m from threshold
b) 600 m from threshold
c) 450 m from threshold
d) 150 m from threshold
4.
Approach Procedures – Non-precision – straight-in A so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision approach, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is:
a) 20° or less
b) 40° or less
c) 30° or less
d) 10° or less
5.
To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E :
a) a clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required.
b) two way radio communication is not required.
c) a clearance and two-way radio communication is required.
d) a clearance is required.
6.
Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?
a) Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes ;
b) During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation ;
c) If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft
d) An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and approach control ;
7.
Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within:
a) 5NM
b) 3NM
c) 2NM
d) 1NM
8.
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:
a) of an arbitrary amount of green lights;
b) of flashing lights only;
c) of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ;
d) always of a straight row of lights towards the runway
9.
Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
a) The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received;
b) The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference
c) Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit
d) Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about this;
10.
Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?
a) ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle
b) The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the movement area;
c) Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller;
d) An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ;
11.
Which statement is correct?
a) The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL;
b) The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL;
c) The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level
d) The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL;
12.
The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called:
a) Combined separation
b) Composite separation
c) Reduced separation
d) Essential separation
13.
The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
a) only in NOTAM
b) only in AIP
c) NOTAM, AIP and MAL
d) in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
14.
Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration:
a) information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.
b) mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions.
c) mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions.
d) information signs; orange background with black inscriptions.
15.
When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in case:
a) the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
b) the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
c) of an emergency.
d) it is a deviation from the track.
16.
When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, than:
a) departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
b) the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;
c) you are not allowed to commence the flight
d) you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight;
17.
Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
a) at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
b) at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
c) at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
d) at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
18.
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
a) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed;
b) on the ground when the engines are running
c) while taxiing, but not when it is being towed;
d) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable;
19.
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
a) this aerodrome is using parallel runways
b) glider flying is performed outside the landing area;
c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only;
d) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;
20.
Interception If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall:
a) ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and request instructions from the appropriate ATS unit.
b) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification.
c) ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and continue in accordance with the last clearance received and confirmed by the appropriate ATS unit.
d) select transponder mode A, squawk 7600, fly holding patterns until having received instructions from the appropriate ATS unit.
21.
Approach procedures – Instrument Approach Area The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:
a) a defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which the Minimum Obstacle Clearance is provided.
b) the first part of the segment.
c) the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully.
d) the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from zero ft to the appropriate minimum.
22.
A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed:
a) as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more
b) during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground;
c) during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;
d) during IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure;
23.
An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if:
a) the pilot is following the published approach procedure
b) the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
c) the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight;
d) all mentioned answers are correct
24.
The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is:
a) 10 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 5 minutes or more.
d) 15 minutes or more
25.
Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than:
a) 3 NM
b) 1,5 NM
c) 5 NM
d) 2,5 NM
26.
During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the "tower-controller" has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the moment the aircraft is:
a) 2 NM from touch-down;
b) 4 NM from touch-down;
c) 3 NM from touch-down;
d) 1NM from touch-down;
27.
Which statement is correct ? During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Class C):
a) ATC will apply separation with other traffic
b) the pilot to apply separation with other traffic;
c) ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic
d) ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic
28.
"Cabotage" refers to:
a) a flight above territorial waters;
b) domestic air services ;
c) a national air carrier;
d) crop spraying
29.
A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
a) weather noted ;
b) a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ;
c) flight identification and weather noted ;
d) urgent messages
30.
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
a) Declare an emergency
b) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
c) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimise the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure
d) Fly the emergency triangle
31.
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
a) 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
b) 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
c) 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100
d) 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195
32.
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
a) 50 metres
b) 40 metres
c) 45 metres
d) 35 metres
33.
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?
a) 1000 metres
b) 1200 metres
c) 900 metres
d) 420 metres
34.
One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
a) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies
b) develop principles and technique for international aviation
c) approve new international airlines with jet aircraft
d) approve new international airlines
35.
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
a) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimise the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure
b) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
c) Declare an emergency
d) Fly the emergency triangle
36.
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?
a) Annex 2
b) Annex 3
c) Annex 1
d) Annex 4
37.
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
a) Annex 6
b) Annex 14
c) Annex 11
d) Annex 10
38.
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
a) Annex 14
b) Annex 11
c) Annex 17
d) Annex 6
39.
An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?
a) When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130
b) When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70
c) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
d) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
40.
A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:
a) Poor
b) Medium/poor
c) Medium
d) Good
41.
Accident investigation Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?
a) The Operators of the same aircraft type.
b) The State of design and manufacturer.
c) The aircraft manufacturer.
d) The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.
42.
According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic:
a) In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south.
b) When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West.
c) Before landing and take-off
d) When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP
43.
Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP
a) OCA or OCH
b) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
c) DME-frequencies
d) Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate
44.
Altimeter setting procedures – Definitions The Transition Level:
a) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.
b) shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
c) is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP.
d) is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.
45.
Altimeter setting procedures – transition level The transition level:
a) is published and updated in the NOTAM
b) is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome
c) will be passed to aircraft by ATS units
d) is calculated by the Pilot-in command
46.
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
a) only in airspace class A
b) Above the transition altitude when applicable
c) When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa
d) if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet
47.
Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
a) If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes
b) Only when leaving controlled airspace
c) If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes
d) If the commander so requests
48.
For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:
a) If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests
b) When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation
c) At the discretion of the air traffic controller
d) Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
49.
If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions
a) The approach must be passing the FAF
b) The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic
c) Continued approach will be according to VFR
d) The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km
50.
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft
a) 10 km
b) 2 km
c) 3 NM
d) 6 NM
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