AIRLAW-BNC-MODULE6

AIRLAW-BNC-MODULE6

1. Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend

a) 12 NM
b) 10 NM
c) 20 NM
d) 15 NM

2. The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the:

a) Geneva convention 1948
b) Geneva convention 1936
c) Warsaw convention 1929
d) Chicago convention 1944

3. Search and Rescue signals The ground - air visual code for: "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is:

a) V
b) Y
c) N
d) X

4. Search and Rescue signals The ground - air visual code for: "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is:

a) N
b) Y
c) V
d) X

5. The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is:

a) 60
b) 30
c) 21
d) 90

6. If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed:

a) After 21 days of consecutive "illness"
b) after one calendar month of consecutive illness
c) as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days
d) if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires

7. If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction

a) until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
b) until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
c) until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
d) until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway

8. When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of:

a) 2 NM from the touchdown
b) 1.5 NM from the touchdown
c) 4 NM from the touchdown
d) 3 NM from the touchdown

9. The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each

a) 1 NM
b) half mile
c) half NM
d) 1.5 NM

10. Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of:

a) 2 NM from touchdown
b) 3 NM from touchdown
c) 4 NM from touchdown
d) 5 NM from touchdown

11. An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of:

a) 4 NM from the touchdown
b) 2 NM from the touchdown
c) 1.5 NM from the touchdown
d) 5 NM from the touchdown

12. An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:

a) Last 4 NM of the approach
b) Last 5 NM of the approach
c) Last 2 NM of the approach
d) Last 3 NM of the approach

13. What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach?

a) Â± 20KT
b) Â± 15 KT
c) Â± 25 KT
d) Â± 10KT

14. Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation:

a) At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
b) At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft
c) At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
d) At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft

15. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is:

a) 3 KT
b) 10 KT
c) 5 KT
d) 8 KT

16. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is:

a) 2 KT
b) 4 KT
c) 5 KT
d) 3 KT

17. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is:

a) 5 KT
b) 4 KT
c) 10 KT
d) 8 KT

18. Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:

a) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700
b) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700
c) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500
d) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500

19. When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is:

a) 100 NM
b) 60 NM
c) 80 NM
d) 70 NM

20. Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilises "on Track" DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is:

a) 25 NM
b) 20 NM
c) 40 NM
d) 10 NM

21. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

a) 2 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 3 minutes

22. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

a) 2 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 3 minutes

23. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be

a) 15 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 3 minutes

24. Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and:

a) On at least 20 occasions
b) On at least 20 days consecutively
c) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days
d) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days

25. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway?

a) 3 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 2 minutes
d) 5 minutes

26. Special VFR flights may the authorised to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:

a) C, D and E airspace
b) E airspace
c) D airspace
d) D and E airspace

27. In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft?

a) medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes
b) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes
c) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
d) light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

28. A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:

a) 100 m (330 ft)
b) 300 m (1000 ft)
c) 200 m (660 ft)
d) 150 m (500 ft)

29. A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by:

a) 760 m
b) Less than 730 m
c) 730 m
d) Less than 760 m

30. A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is:

a) 3 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 2 minutes
d) 5 minutes

31. A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:

a) 3.0 NM
b) 5.0 NM
c) 1.0 NM
d) 2.0 NM

32. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:

a) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25Â° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
b) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30Â° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
c) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20Â° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
d) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45Â° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

33. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than:

a) 15 degrees
b) 25 degrees
c) 20 degrees
d) 30 degrees

34. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:

a) 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
b) 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
c) 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
d) 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display

35. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for:

a) at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
b) at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
c) at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
d) at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle

36. Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges by:

a) at least 30Â° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
b) at least 15Â° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
c) at least 45Â° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
d) at least 25Â° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

37. In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway?

a) 2 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 4 minutes
d) 3 minutes

38. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:

a) 250 KT IAS
b) 250 KT TAS
c) 240 KT IAS
d) Not applicable

39. The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:

a) Not applicable
b) 240 KT IAS
c) 250 KT TAS
d) 250 KT IAS

40. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:

a) 260 KT IAS
b) 250 KT IAS
c) 250 KT TAS
d) Not applicable

41. The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is:

a) 250 KT TAS
b) Not applicable
c) 260 KT IAS
d) 250 KT IAS

42. A strayed aircraft is:

a) An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost
b) an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established
c) only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
d) only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track

43. Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:

a) A to G (inclusive)
b) C to G (inclusive)
c) F and G
d) A to E (inclusive)

44. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:

a) below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
b) below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
c) cumulonimbus
d) below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

45. Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in:

a) has to be the same as the underlying flight information region
b) have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings
c) need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region
d) have to be as indicated by ICAO council

46. The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:

a) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
b) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
c) 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds
d) 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud

47. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds

a) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
b) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
c) 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
d) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

48. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds

a) 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
b) 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
c) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds
d) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

49. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:

a) Airspace E
b) Airspace C
c) Airspace B
d) Airspace D

50. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as

a) Airspace C
b) Airspace B
c) Airspace E
d) Airspace D

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