AIRLAW-BNC-MODULE7

AIRLAW-BNC-MODULE7

1. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as:

a) Airspace B
b) Airspace E
c) Airspace A
d) Airspace D

2. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as

a) Airspace E
b) Airspace B
c) Airspace A
d) Airspace D

3. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified

a) Airspace G
b) Airspace E
c) Airspace D
d) Airspace F

4. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as

a) Airspace G
b) Airspace C
c) Airspace E
d) Airspace F

5. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements

a) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries
b) AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries
c) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries
d) AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC

6. The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by:

a) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures
b) The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D
c) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures
d) The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures

7. In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of

a) At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
b) At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
c) At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer
d) At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer

8. Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.

a) One year or longer
b) Two months or longer
c) Six months or longer
d) Three months or longer

9. Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:

a) AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC
b) AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number
c) AIP supplements and shall be clearly identified
d) NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number

10. A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:

a) Not more than 28 days
b) Not more than one month
c) Not more than 2 months
d) Not more than three months

11. A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of:

a) Not more than 28 days
b) No more than 15 days
c) Not more than one month
d) Not more than 10 days

12. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is

a) RED
b) GREEN
c) YELLOW
d) ORANGE

13. AIP SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP?

a) MET
b) GEN
c) AD
d) ENR

14. AIP Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue?

a) AD
b) GEN
c) SAR
d) ENR

15. AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures?

a) MAP
b) AD
c) ENR
d) GEN

16. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:

a) accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo
b) cargo and is covered by a traffic document
c) cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms
d) cargo but clearance documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to shipment

17. The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:

a) are accepted at the contracting state discretion
b) has to be typewritten
c) are accepted in hand-written block lettering in ink
d) has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques

18. When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator:

a) shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
b) shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
c) and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible
d) is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state

19. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is:

a) annex 9
b) annex 15
c) annex 6
d) annex 8

20. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is:

a) annex 15
b) annex 8
c) annex 9
d) annex 16

21. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law

a) may request such person to disembark
b) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
c) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
d) may deliver such person to the competent authorities

22. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:

a) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
b) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
c) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
d) offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft

23. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:

a) the Tokyo Convention
b) the Rome Convention
c) the Warsaw Convention
d) the Paris Convention

24. Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by:

a) the Montreal Convention
b) the Warsaw Convention
c) the Rome Convention
d) the Chicago Convention

25. The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:

a) the convention of Chicago
b) the convention of Rome
c) the convention of Paris
d) the convention of Tokyo

26. The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is

a) the convention of Rome
b) the convention of Madrid
c) the convention of Tokyo
d) the convention of Warsaw

27. The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:

a) 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
b) 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
c) 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
d) 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence

28. The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than:

a) 18 years of age
b) 17 years of age
c) 16 years of age
d) 21 years of age

29. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold

a) a current class I medical assessment
b) a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence
c) a current class II medical assessment
d) a current class III medical assessment

30. The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:

a) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportation
b) to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation
c) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation
d) none of the answers are correct

31. In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:

a) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
b) Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations
c) in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
d) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations.

32. The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:

a) the licence is delivered to the pilot
b) the licence is issued or renewed
c) the licence is issued or validated
d) the medical assessment is issued

33. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorisation

a) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
b) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence
c) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights
d) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion

34. Type ratings shall be established

a) only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter
b) only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots
c) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
d) all the answers are correct

35. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:

a) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
b) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
c) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
d) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority

36. The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by:

a) ECAC
b) ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned
c) Each contracting state
d) ICAO

37. When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed

a) the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified
b) the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft
c) only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened
d) only the passengers are to be re screened

38. Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply:

a) to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state
b) only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo
c) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights
d) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights

39. When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:

a) Agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport of arrival
b) Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only
c) Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state of destination
d) Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft

40. Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:

a) Deportees and inadmissible persons only
b) None of the answers is correct
c) Deportees and persons in lawful custody only
d) Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody

41. For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as:

a) the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion
b) boarding prior to all passengers
c) the boarding has to be done at the state discretion
d) boarding after to all other passengers

42. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of:

a) 15 NM on the route between 30Â° and 90Â° at and above FL 200
b) 25 NM on the route between 30Â° and 90Â° at and below FL190
c) 22.5 NM on the route between 30Â° and 90Â° at and above FL 250
d) 15 NM on the route between 30Â° and 90Â° at and below FL 190

43. Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of

a) plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis
b) plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis
c) plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
d) plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis

44. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:

a) 22.5 NM between 30Â° and 90Â° at and above FL260
b) 20 NM on the route between 30Â° and 90Â° at and above FL200
c) 25.0 NM on the route between 30Â° and 90Â° at and above FL 250
d) 22.5 NM between 30Â° and 90Â° at and above FL200

45. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed

a) 3 minutes
b) 2 minutes
c) 30 seconds
d) 1 minute

46. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated

a) immediately a significant change occurs
b) as prescribed by the state
c) at least every half an hour independently of any significant change
d) as prescribed by the meteorological office

47. Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of

a) the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)
b) both air traffic services and the meteorological office
c) the unit as prescribed the states
d) the air traffic services

48. ATIS broadcast

a) Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR
b) shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
c) Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR
d) Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency

49. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus

a) 30 seconds of UTC at all times
b) 15 seconds of UTC at all times
c) 10 seconds of UTC at all times
d) 1 minute of UTC at all times

50. An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is

a) An En-Route Meteo Report
b) An AIRMET information
c) A SIGMET information
d) A NOTAM

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