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AIRLAW-BNC-MODULE8
1.
Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of
a) 60 NM or more
b) 75 NM or more
c) 50 NM or more
d) 100 NM or more
2.
Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
a) by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
b) by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
c) by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
d) by regional air navigation agreements
3.
Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes:
a) C, D, E, F, and G
b) F only
c) A, B, C, D, E, F and G
d) F and G only
4.
According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
a) the state of registry only
b) the International Civil Aviation Organisation
c) the state of registry or common mark registering authority
d) the International Telecommunication Union
5.
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the
a) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
b) three letters combinations used in the international code of signals
c) letters used for ICAO identification documents
d) four letter combinations beginning with Q
6.
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
a) LLL
b) FFF
c) TTT
d) RCC
7.
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
a) LLL
b) RCC
c) PAN
d) DDD
8.
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
a) XXX
b) LLL
c) RCC
d) DDD
9.
The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
a) at least 60 centimetres
b) at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres
c) at least 75 centimetres
d) at least 50 centimetres
10.
The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
a) at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
b) at least 40 centimetres
c) at least 20 centimetres
d) at least 30 centimetres
11.
The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:
a) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
b) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
c) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
d) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
12.
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
a) the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
b) the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy
c) the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy
d) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
13.
The loading limitations shall include:
a) all limiting mass and centres of gravity
b) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading
c) all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
d) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading
14.
An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
a) not land because the airport is not available for landing.
b) not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
c) return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
d) give way to another aircraft.
15.
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of:
a) Chicago
b) Montreal
c) The Hague
d) Warsaw
16.
The second freedom of the air is the:
a) right to overfly without landing
b) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.
c) right to land for a technical stop
d) right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
17.
The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:
a) Annex 1
b) Annex 12
c) Annex 2
d) Annex 11
18.
The first freedom of the air is:
a) The right to overfly without landing.
b) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.
c) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.
d) The right to land for a technical stop.
19.
An AIRAC is:
a) A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.
b) A package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries.
c) An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
d) A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
20.
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:
a) aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
b) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
c) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
d) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.
21.
The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:
a) Montreal Convention.
b) Hague Convention.
c) Warsaw Convention.
d) Tokyo Convention.
22.
At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must:
a) make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
b) transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R" using his navigational lights.
c) switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.
d) fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
23.
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
a) true air speed at 65% power.
b) indicated air speed (IAS).
c) true air speed (TAS).
d) estimated ground speed (G/S).
24.
The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
a) of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.
b) required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.
c) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
d) required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).
25.
An air traffic control unit:
a) may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.
b) must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.
c) may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.
d) may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.
26.
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
a) must give way to another aircraft.
b) must land immediately and clear the landing area.
c) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
d) is cleared to land.
27.
The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
a) automatically at the control zone boundary.
b) by agreement with the receiving unit.
c) with the pilot's consent.
d) through a central control unit.
28.
Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):
a) its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation.
b) its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.
c) it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular.
d) it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services.
29.
SSR special codes ATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320. In case of loosing two way radio communication, you have to squawk:
a) Mode A Code 7700
b) Mode A Code 7500
c) Mode A Code 7600
d) Mode A Code 5320
30.
When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading:
a) 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
b) 030° magnetic
c) 030° true
d) 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)
31.
The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
a) 5 700 kg for aeroplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.
b) 20 000 kg.
c) 7 000 kg.
d) 14 000 kg.
32.
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
a) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport
b) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport
c) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport.
d) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport.
33.
While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
a) must stop.
b) may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
c) must vacate the landing area in use.
d) must return to its point of departure.
34.
While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
a) must stop.
b) must return to its point of departure.
c) may continue to taxi towards the take-off area.
d) is cleared for take-off.
35.
Approach procedures – missed approach climb Normally the missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
a) 2%
b) 3.30%
c) 2.50%
d) 5%
36.
For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft:
a) will stop on the parking area.
b) will land.
c) will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.
d) will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
37.
Given: AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight level within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:
a) FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.
b) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.
c) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL.
d) FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.
38.
Approach procedures – Minimum Sector Altitudes / MSA Minimum Sector Altitudes are established for each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least 300m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome. How many NM is the radius of this circle?
a) 5 NM
b) 20 NM
c) 25 NM
d) 10 NM
39.
Approach procedures – MDH / OCH For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than:
a) the Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH)
b) 400 ft
c) 350 ft
d) 200 ft
40.
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
a) control centres only.
b) air traffic control and flight information centres.
c) air traffic co-ordination centres.
d) search and rescue co-ordination centres.
41.
During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
a) the approach controller.
b) the airport controller.
c) the radar controller.
d) the pilot in command.
42.
An instrument rating is valid for:
a) two years
b) one year
c) Indefinitely
d) The period of validity of the licence.
43.
Establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:
a) Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training
b) A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
c) Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
d) A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
44.
According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the:
a) Laws of the State of registry and operation
b) Requirements laid down by ICAO
c) Laws of the State of registry
d) Laws of the State in which is operated
45.
Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme,
a) That is common for all airports within State
b) for every airline operating in the State
c) only for administrative staff of airport
d) At each airport
46.
The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers
a) and baggage
b) checked baggage, cargo and other goods
c) cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design
d) checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design
47.
When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the:
a) Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO
b) Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board the aircraft and the ICAO
c) Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO
d) Two aforementioned States and the ICAO
48.
A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes:
a) provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and catering for passengers
b) only permission to land
c) provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land
d) provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and refuelling
49.
A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference,
a) and arrange for them to return to their country of origin
b) if is requested by an individual passenger
c) until their journey can be continued
d) during a period of investigation
50.
Accident investigation, objective The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the:
a) prevention of accidents or incidents and establish the liability.
b) prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide legal evidence for subsequent court cases.
c) prevention of accidents or incidents and provide the manufacturer with investigation data for the improvement of the design.
d) prevention of accidents or incidents.
51.
Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud.
a) GVATAM
b) NAVTAM
c) VULTAM
d) ASHTAM
52.
The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym:
a) AIRAC
b) EATCHIP
c) IFPS
d) NOTAM
53.
The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are published as follows:
a) AIP Amendments
b) Trigger NOTAM
c) NOTAM
d) AIP Supplements
54.
The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine _________.
a) Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive.
b) Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.
c) Single-engine/inactive.
d) Land/inactive.
55.
The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called:
a) Security program.
b) Manoeuvring area.
c) Aeronautical part
d) Terminal.
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