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MET-BNC-MODULE11
1.
An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system of a depression, which is moving from West to East. The centre of the depression passes to the South of the observer. For this observer the wind direction is
a) continuously backing
b) continuously veering
c) initially veering, then backing
d) initially backing, then veering
2.
When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to be
a) fog or low cloud
b) unlimited visibility
c) high scattered clouds
d) clear and cool
3.
The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is likely to produce
a) a cold front
b) good clear weather
c) advection fog
d) radiation fog
4.
Advection fog can be formed when
a) cold moist air flows over warmer water
b) warm moist air flows over a warmer surface
c) cold moist air flows over a warmer surface
d) warm moist air flows over a colder surface
5.
Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air
a) with warm mass properties
b) that is absolutely stable
c) that is stable
d) with cold mass properties
6.
Frontal fog is most likely to occur
a) in summer in the early morning
b) in rear of a warm front
c) in winter in the early morning
d) in advance of a warm front
7.
Visibility is reduced by haze when
a) a light drizzle falls
b) a cold front just passed
c) small water droplets are present
d) dust particles are trapped below an inversion
8.
Freezing fog exists if fog droplets
a) freeze when temperature falls below zero
b) are freezing very rapidly
c) are frozen
d) are supercooled
9.
Runway Visual Range (RVR) is
a) usually better than visibility
b) reported in AIRMET and METAR
c) measured with ceilometers alongside the runway
d) reported when visibility is less than 2000m
10.
Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog?
a) Moist air over land during clear night with little wind
b) Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sea
c) Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea
d) Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountain
11.
In a warm front occlusion
a) the warm air is lifted
b) the warm front becomes a front aloft
c) the cold air is lifted
d) the warm front overtakes the cold front
12.
The first clouds are thin, wispy cirrus, followed by sheets of cirrus and cirrostratus, and altostratus. The sun is obscured as the altostratus thickens and drizzle or rain begins to fall. The cloud base is lowering as Nimbostratus arrives. These phenomena describe the approach of a
a) sea-breeze front
b) cold front
c) trade wind front
d) warm front
13.
If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a
a) cold low
b) cold high
c) warm high
d) warm low
14.
A cold pool
a) occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the influence of cold north-westerly airstream
b) is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart
c) develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systems
d) normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
15.
The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is called
a) radiation inversion
b) subsidence inversion
c) friction inversion
d) trade wind inversion
16.
A blocking anticyclone in the northern hemisphere is
a) quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N/a cold anticyclone
b) a cold anticyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia
c) situated between 50°N and 70°N/a cold anticyclone/steering depressions
d) a warm anticyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N
17.
The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in
a) December, January, February
b) July, August, September
c) September, October, November
d) February, March, April
18.
Which of the following statements concerning the intertropical convergence zone is true?
a) It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southern hemisphere in January
b) It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity
c) There are frequent occurrences of CB
d) It does not change its position over the oceans during the year
19.
An easterly wave is a
a) disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough
b) small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough
c) wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough
d) wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough
20.
The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the equator (gulf of Guinea) is a
a) SW monsoon in summer and NE tradewind in winter
b) NE monsoon in winter and SE tradewind in summer
c) SW monsoon in winter and NE monsoon in summer
d) NE tradewind in summer and SE tradewind in winter
21.
What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?
a) The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
b) The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the chart
c) The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart
d) The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart
22.
The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered
a) when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
b) near valleys and at the windward side of mountains.
c) in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kt
d) during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
23.
Vertical wind shear is
a) a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with horizontal distance
b) a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with height
c) a change of vertical wind speed with horizontal distance
d) a horizontal shear of vertical wind
24.
The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country flight is
a) stratocumulus
b) cumulonimbus
c) cirrus
d) cumulus
25.
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts?
a) Mature stage
b) Dissipating stage
c) Initial stage
d) Tornado stage
26.
What feature is normally associated with the initial stage of a thunderstorm?
a) Continuous updraft
b) Frequent lightning
c) Rain or hail at the surface
d) Roll cloud
27.
Large hail stones
a) are entirely composed of clear ice
b) only occur in frontal thunderstorms
c) are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
d) only occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudes
28.
Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines ?
a) For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued
b) For severe squall lines a TAF is issued
c) Severe squall lines always move from northwest to southeast
d) Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics
29.
A gust front is
a) characterized by heavy lightning
b) normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm
c) formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
d) another name for a cold front
30.
In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms encountered ?
a) Polar
b) Temperate
c) Tropical
d) Subtropical
31.
A microburst with its damaging winds at the surface
a) occurs only in tropical areas
b) is always associated with thunderstorms
c) has a diameter up to 4 km
d) has a life time of more than 30 minutes
32.
Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the
a) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
b) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
c) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
d) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate
33.
With which type of cloud are tornadoes associated ?
a) Nimbostratus
b) Stratus
c) Cumulonimbus
d) Cumulus mediocris
34.
The diameter of a typical tornado is
a) only a few metres
b) about 2 to 6 km
c) in the order of 10 km
d) 100 to 150 metres
35.
In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and downdrafts simultaneously?
a) Cumulus stage
b) Dissipating stage
c) Mature stage
d) In all stages
36.
Fallstreaks or virga are
a) strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
b) gusts associated with a well developed Bora
c) strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation
d) water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground
37.
At the surface the lifetime of a typical microburst and the diameter of the area affected by damaging winds are in the order of
a) 1-5 minutes and 4 km
b) 5-10 minutes and 12 km
c) 30-40 minutes and 4 km
d) 5-15 minutes and 8 km
38.
Supercooled droplets can occur in
a) clouds but not in fog
b) clouds, fog and precipitation
c) clouds but not in precipitation
d) precipitation but not in clouds
39.
During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze
a) rapidly and do not spread out
b) slowly and do not spread out
c) slowly and spread out
d) rapidly and spread out
40.
Supercooled droplets are always
a) large and at a temperature below freezing
b) at a temperature below freezing
c) small and at a temperature below freezing
d) at a temperature below -60°C
41.
Supercooled droplets can be encountered
a) in winter only in high clouds
b) at any time of the year
c) only in winter at high altitude
d) only in winter above 10000 FT
42.
Clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are
a) large and at a temperature just below freezing
b) small and freeze rapidly
c) of any size at temperatures below -35°C.
d) small and at a temperature just below freezing
43.
During an adiabatic process heat is
a) added
b) neither added nor lost
c) added but the result is an overall loss
d) lost
44.
The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is
a) 2°C
b) 0.65°C
c) 1°C
d) 0.5°C
45.
The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air at lower level of the atmosphere is approximately
a) 0.6°C
b) 1.5°C
c) 0.35°C
d) 1°C
46.
The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200 UTC. Assume the station is at MSL. Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C. 20000.-12 18000.-11 16000.-10 14000.-10 12000.-6 10000.-2 8000. +2 6000. +6 4000. +12 2000. +15 surface+15. Which of the following statements is correct ?
a) The layer between 16000 and 18000 FT is absolutely unstable
b) Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa the true altitude of an aircraft would actually be higher than the indicated altitude.
c) The height of the freezing level over the station is approximately 12000 FT.
d) The temperature at 10000 FT is in agreement with the temperature in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere.
47.
In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by
a) haze
b) showers of rain or snow
c) drizzle
d) low stratus
48.
A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the temperature profile
a) indicates temperatures below -40°C
b) coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate
c) intersects the 0°C isotherm twice
d) indicates temperatures above 3°C
49.
A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in
a) TAF and METAR
b) TAF and SIGMET
c) SWC and SIGMET
d) METAR and SIGMET
50.
Freezing precipitation occurs
a) mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle
b) only in the precipitation of a warm front
c) mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow
d) only in the precipitation of a cold front
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