This page requires a JavaScript-enabled browser
Instructions on how to enable your browser are contained in the help file.
MET-BNC-MODULE12
1.
In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility when
a) the surface wind is strong and gusty
b) there is a low level inversion
c) a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area
d) cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoon
2.
The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated air because:
a) moist air is heavier than dry air
b) heat is released during the condensation process
c) water vapour doesn't cool as rapidly as dry air
d) water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun
3.
If the surface temperature is 15°C , then the temperature at 10000 FT in a current of ascending unsaturated air is:
a) 0°C
b) -15°C
c) -5°C
d) 5°C
4.
An inversion is
a) an increase of pressure with height
b) a decrease of temperature with height
c) an increase of temperature with height
d) a decrease of pressure with height
5.
In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2°C per 100 m increase in altitude. This temperature change is called:
a) environmental lapse rate
b) saturated adiabatic lapse rate
c) dry adiabatic lapse rate
d) normal lapse rate
6.
Freezing fog consists of
a) frozen water droplets
b) supercooled water droplets
c) ice crystals
d) frozen minute snow flakes
7.
Clear ice is dangerous because it
a) is not translucent and forms at the leading edges
b) is translucent and only forms at the leading edges
c) is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces
d) spreads out and contains many air particles
8.
Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of
a) water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
b) droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing
c) small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft
d) freezing rain striking the aircraft
9.
An air mass is unstable when
a) temperature and humidity are not constant
b) temperature increases with height
c) an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height.
d) pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
10.
An air mass is stable when
a) the lapse rate is 1°C per 100 m
b) temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
c) the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and disappears.
d) pressure is constant
11.
On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced
a) immediately after sunset
b) about midmorning
c) during early morning hours before sunrise
d) during the early afternoon
12.
A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of
a) nocturnal radiation
b) advection fog
c) cumulus clouds
d) the passage of cold front
13.
Clear ice forms as a result of
a) ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
b) water vapour freezing to the aircraft
c) supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process
d) supercooled droplets freezing on impact
14.
From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the atmosphere be derived?
a) Environmental lapse rate
b) Surface temperature
c) Dry adiabatic lapse rate
d) Pressure at the surface
15.
The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5°C is most likely to be
a) hoar frost
b) cloudy ice
c) rime ice
d) clear ice
16.
In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known ?
a) Elevation of the airfield
b) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield
c) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
d) Temperature at the airfield
17.
Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?
a) The diameter is 50-500 m
b) From the earth's surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its surroundings
c) Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter
d) They intensify rapidly after landfall
18.
Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface on a heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 090 degrees, then true altitude is increasing
b) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 270 degrees, then true altitude is increasing
c) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 180 degrees, then true altitude is increasing
d) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360 degrees, then true altitude is increasing
19.
Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?
a) In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur
b) In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur
c) In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur
d) In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur
20.
Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced ?
a) A straight jet stream near a low pressure area
b) A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms
c) A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer
d) A curved jet stream near a deep trough
21.
An aircraft is flying at FL 180 in the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude ?
a) It remains constant
b) Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question can not be answered.
c) It decreases
d) It increases
22.
A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is
a) between 1°C per 100m and 0.65°C per 100m
b) 0.65°C per 100m
c) less than 0.65°C per 100m
d) more than 1°C per 100m
23.
A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is
a) unstable
b) conditionally unstable
c) absolutely stable
d) neutral
24.
A layer in which the temperature increases with height is
a) absolutely stable
b) absolutely unstable
c) conditionally unstable
d) neutral
25.
A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1°C per 100m increasing altitude is
a) conditionally unstable
b) absolutely unstable
c) absolutely stable
d) neutral for dry air
26.
If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10°C and at the top of the layer is 8°C then this layer is
a) conditionally unstable
b) neutral
c) absolutely stable
d) absolutely unstable
27.
An inversion is
a) a conditionally unstable layer
b) an unstable layer
c) a layer that can be either stable or unstable
d) an absolutely stable layer
28.
Below a low level inversion visibility is often
a) moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange
b) very good in the early morning
c) moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers.
d) very good at night
29.
Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to
a) change in speed but not in direction
b) experience little or no change in speed and direction
c) change in direction but not in speed
d) change significantly in speed and direction
30.
Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL180 in the northern hemisphere, where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains constant ?
a) There is no cross wind
b) Without knowing temperature at FL 180 this question can not be answered
c) There is a cross wind from the right
d) There is a cross wind from the left
31.
Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream is correct ?
a) It lies at a height where there is no horizontal temperature gradient; the slope of the pressure surfaces at the height of the core is at its maximum
b) It lies in the warm air; its pressure surfaces are horizontal at the height of the core
c) It lies in the cold air; the wind reverses direction at the height of the core
d) It and its surface projection lie in the warm air
32.
On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This means that
a) the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet
b) above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
c) the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jet
d) below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
33.
An isohypse of the 500 hPa pressure surface is labelled with the number 552. This means that for all points on the isohypse the
a) topography is 552 meters above MSL
b) topography is 552 decameters above MSL
c) pressure altimeter will overread by 552 FT
d) pressure is 552 hPa
34.
Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct?
a) They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced over the oceans
b) They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are more pronounced over the continents
c) They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the oceans
d) They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the continents
35.
In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10°N and 20°N the prevailing winds are
a) SE trade winds
b) SW winds throughout the whole year
c) NE trade winds
d) NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summer
36.
Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the
a) SE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January
b) SW monsoon in July and a NE monsoon in January
c) SW monsoon in July and a SE monsoon in January
d) NE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January
37.
On the West coast of India it can be said in general that the wind blows
a) for six month from the North East and for six month from the South West
b) the whole year from the South East
c) for six month from the North West and for six month from the South East
d) the whole year from the North East
38.
The validity of a TAF is
a) 2 hours
b) stated in the TAF
c) between 6 and 9 hours
d) 9 hours from the time of issue
39.
ATIS information contains
a) meteorological and operational information
b) operational information and if necessary meteorological information
c) only meteorological information
d) only operational information
40.
If CAVOK is reported then
a) low level wind shear has not been reported
b) no low drifting snow is present
c) no clouds are present
d) any CB's have a base above 5000 FT
41.
Runway visual range can be reported in
a) a METAR
b) a SIGMET
c) a TAF
d) both a TAF and a METAR
42.
SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to
a) light aircraft only
b) all aircraft
c) heavy aircraft only
d) VFR operations only
43.
The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to
a) magnetic north
b) true north
c) the 0-meridian
d) grid north
44.
A SPECI is
a) a warning for special weather phenomena
b) an aviation routine weather report
c) a forecast for special weather phenomena
d) an aviation special weather report
45.
On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and distributed with intervals of
a) 0.5 hour
b) 3 hours
c) 1 hour
d) 2 hours
46.
The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the
a) highest value of the A-, B- and C-position
b) value representative of the touchdown zone
c) average value of the A-, B- and C-position
d) lowest value of the A-, B- and C-position
47.
The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above
a) mean sea level
b) airfield level
c) the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station
d) the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation
48.
The QNH is equal to the QFE if
a) T actual = T standard
b) T actual more than T standard
c) T actual less than T standard
d) the elevation = 0
49.
Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?
a) QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1600 FT (488m)
b) QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
c) QFE = 1000 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
d) QFE = 1003 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
50.
The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if
a) the outside air temperature is standard for that height
b) the air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surface
c) the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
d) standard atmospheric conditions occur
This is more feedback!
This is the feedback!
Data Base Login Information: Please make
sure that you enter your name before
submitting your results.
My Name
*Enter your name here
Back to Top
