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MET-BNC-MODULE13
1.
You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a field on a nearby island with an elevation of 4000 FT is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20°C. What is your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set in the subscale?
a) Less than 0 FT
b) More than 0 FT, but less than 4000 FT
c) 0 FT
d) 4000 FT
2.
The troposphere
a) is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere
b) reaches the same height at all latitudes
c) contains all oxygen of the stratosphere
d) has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles
3.
What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?
a) Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knots
b) Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in km/h
c) Direction relative to grid north and speed in km/h
d) Direction relative to true north and speed in knots
4.
A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after take off the aircraft's rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to
a) sand/dust in the engines
b) low relative humidity
c) a very strong temperature inversion
d) very pronounced downdrafts
5.
Given the following METAR: EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 05/05 Q1025 NOSIG Which of the following statements is correct ?
a) RVR on runway 26R is increasing
b) There is a distinct change in RVR observed
c) Visibility is reduced by water droplets
d) Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVR
6.
Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to minimal
a) about 200 metres
b) about 500 metres
c) about 1000 metres
d) tens of metres
7.
In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 situated?
a) 400 - 300 hPa
b) 600 - 500 hPa
c) 500 - 400 hPa
d) 300 - 200 hPa
8.
Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal
a) QNH
b) QFE
c) QNE
d) QFF
9.
The Bora is a
a) cold catabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers
b) cold catabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
c) cold catabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
d) squally warm catabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
10.
The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is:
a) above 15 kt
b) between 5 and 10 kt
c) between 10 and 15 kt
d) below 5 kt
11.
When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area of most severe turbulence be located?
a) In the rotor zone
b) On the windward side of the mountain range
c) Just below the tropopause
d) Just above the cap cloud
12.
Which of the following quantities remains unchanged if unsaturated air is lifted until it reaches the lifting condensation level?
a) Maximum mixing ratio
b) Mixing ratio
c) Maximum vapour pressure
d) Difference between temperature and dewpoint temperature
13.
Which of the following statements about lightnings and lightning strikes is correct?
a) Spherical lightnings often penetrate into aircraft
b) Lightning strikes always cause heavy damage
c) The aircraft is temporarily part of the lightning trajectory
d) Compasses and electronics are always affected
14.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Airframe icing can occur in clear air
b) Above the tropopause no turbulence occurs
c) Mountain waves are always accompanied by rotor clouds
d) Haze is a reduction of visibility due to the presence of water vapour
15.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The Coriolis force is directed in the same sense at all latitudes
b) The Coriolis force is inversely proportional to the sine of latitude
c) At the equator horizontal motions do not induce any horizontal Coriolis force
d) In gradient wind the Coriolis force is in balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force and the frictional force
16.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) HZ is reported only when visibility is reduced to 2000 m or less
b) FG is reported only when visibility is reduced by water droplets or ice crystals to less than 1000 m
c) When BR is reported then the visibility is more than 1000 m but less than 8000 m
d) VC denotes not at the aerodrome but not within 8 nm
17.
Which statement is correct for microbursts ?
a) They occur in the tropics only
b) They only develop below convective clouds with heavy rain
c) The diameter of the affected area on the surface does not exceed 4 km
d) Their downdraft is warmer than the surroundings
18.
Which statement is correct for the southern hemisphere?
a) If the wind veers with increasing height then warm air is advected
b) The wind veers at the passage of a cold front
c) The jet streams are Easterly
d) In the friction layer the wind backs with increasing height
19.
With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only updraughts of air?
a) Dissipating stage
b) Initial stage
c) Mature stage
d) Anvil stage
20.
During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The crew notice a slight glistening on top of the wings. The wings look clear though. The pilot should, under these conditions, appreciate that:
a) nothing particular will happen during take-off
b) there is no risk of ice accretion
c) the aircraft will take off within the normal runway length
d) the aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing with fluid of the correct type
21.
The length, width and height of a typical mid-latitude jet stream are respectively
a) 1000 nautical miles, 5000 to 8000 feet, 30000 feet
b) 1000 nautical miles, 150 nautical miles, 30000 feet
c) 200 nautical miles, 5 nautical miles, 18000 feet
d) 1000 nautical miles, 150 nautical miles, 18000 feet
22.
During periods of undisturbed radiation weather, overland, the
a) angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the mid afternoon
b) surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
c) surface wind speed tends to be highest during the mid afternoon
d) wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon
23.
A parcel of unsaturated air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer. So long as it remains unsaturated, the temperature of the parcel
a) decreases 1°C per 100 m
b) decreases 0.65°C per 100 m
c) remains constant
d) becomes equal to the temperature of the isothermal layer
24.
A cumulus congestus is
a) a cumulus with little vertical development
b) a remnant of a CB
c) a cumulus that is of great vertical extent
d) a cumulus that only occurs in association with the ITCZ
25.
Which statement is correct concerning a mountain ridge where a marked mountain wave has been reported ?
a) Ragged altocumulus lenticularis is an indication for the presence of moderate/severe turbulence at the level of these clouds
b) There are always rotor clouds
c) The atmosphere is unstable at the level of the mountain tops
d) The axis of a rotor is horizontal and perpendicular to the mountains
26.
You are flying at FL 340 (250 hPa) on the northern hemisphere. The wind is geostrophic and there is a cross wind from the right all the time. Your true altitude will
a) increase, only if the temperature at your flight level is rising on your route
b) increase
c) decrease, only if the pressure at the surface is decreasing on your route
d) decrease
27.
If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value,
a) the conditions must be as in the ISA
b) the airport must be at MSL
c) the 1013.25 hPa level must be at MSL
d) the airport must be at MSL and the conditions must be as in the ISA
28.
Which statement is correct for an absolutely unstable atmosphere?
a) the dry adiabatic lapse rate is more than 1°C / 100 m
b) clouds are mainly of the stratiform type
c) visibility is good between showers
d) the environmental lapse rate is less than 1°C / 100 m
29.
Stratus formed by turbulence will occur when
a) in the friction layer mixing occurs by turbulence and the condensation level is situated below the top of the turbulent layer
b) the wind speed is greater than 10 kt and the condensation level is situated just above the turbulent layer
c) absolute instability exists at low level
d) the wind speed is less than 10 kt and the air is heated by the earth's surface
30.
The passage of a warm front can be associated with areas of fog. The types of fog just in advance and just after the passage are respectively
a) advection fog and radiation fog
b) frontal fog and advection fog
c) arctic smoke and frontal fog
d) advection fog and steaming fog
31.
The maximum vapour pressure over a flat supercooled water surface and the maximum vapour pressure over a flat ice surface of the same temperature are compared. The maximum vapour pressure is
a) equal over both surfaces
b) greater over the water surface
c) the same over both surfaces if the air pressure is the same
d) smaller over the water surface
32.
A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a depression. The centre of the depression passes from west to east and south of the observer. For this observer the wind
a) initially veers, then backs
b) initially backs, then veers
c) backs
d) veers
33.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The Bergeron-Findeisen process is mainly based on the difference of maximum vapour pressure over water and over ice of the same temperature
b) At mid-latitudes the coalescense process is usually the initial process in the formation of precipitation
c) The principle of the Bergeron-Findeisen process is mainly based on the difference in size of the cloud elements
d) In the tropics stratiform precipitation does not occur
34.
The pressure system indicated when, in a vertical cross section, the lower situated pressure surfaces bulge upward and the higher situated pressure surfaces bulge downward is a
a) warm high pressure area
b) cold low pressure area
c) cold high pressure area
d) warm low pressure area
35.
After a sunny day, followed by a long clear night, you take-off from an airfield at mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere an hour before sunrise. The field is not situated close to the coast. Though the pressure gradient is rather large, the easterly surface wind is weak. What do you expect?
a) A little increase in wind speed and little veering of the wind up to a height of 5000 FT
b) A sudden strong increase in wind speed and strong veering of the wind a short time after take-off
c) A squally wind up to great heights
d) A large but gradual increase in wind speed and large but gradual veering of the wind up to a height of 5000 FT
36.
In mature Cb's the probability of severe icing, according to meteorological rules, is greatest in the following temperature range:
a) -23°C to -40°C
b) +5°C to 0°C
c) 0°C to -23°C
d) -40°C to -60°C
37.
Convective weather phenomena include
a) hail, lightning strikes, wind lulls, squalls, stratocumulus, low level wind maximum
b) heavy showers, lightning strikes, hail, mist, squalls, light rain over a large area
c) thunderstorms, tornadoes, hail, haze, wind gusts, advection fog
d) thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, wind gusts, heavy showers, lightning strikes
38.
What is a favourable synoptic situation for the development of a Scirocco?
a) Low pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean sea
b) High pressure area over Italy
c) High pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean sea
d) Extension of the Azores high pressure area over the Alps
39.
Which type of fog can NOT be formed over water?
a) Advection fog
b) Radiation fog
c) Arctic smoke
d) Frontal fog
40.
The stability in a layer increases by advection of
a) moist air in the lower part
b) warm air in the lower part
c) cold air in the lower part
d) dry air in the upper part
41.
Over which areas can tropical cyclones occur ?
a) Caribbean Sea, Indian Ocean at 20°S, Pacific Ocean at 2°N
b) India, Arabic Sea, Atlantic Ocean at 2°S
c) Caribbean Sea, Gulf of Bengal, Indian Ocean east of Madagascar
d) Australia, Gulf of Bengal, Atlantic Ocean at 20°S
42.
Which statement about hurricanes in the North Atlantic is correct?
a) Their eye can be well observed by weather satellites
b) They move towards the equator
c) They move with a speed of at least 60 kt
d) They intensify after landfall
43.
Cold air pools
a) can easily be recognized on synoptic surface charts
b) only occur in winter
c) only occur at mid-latitudes
d) are most evident in the temperature and wind fields of the upper levels
44.
During the approach of Bombay ( 19°N - 73°E ) on the west coast of India, you are listening to the ATIS on 15 July at 0700 LT. Which of the following reports is most likely ?
a) 05013KT 3500 MIFG SCT003 BKN005 19/14 Q1012 BECMG 8000=
b) 02005KT CAVOK 24/09 Q1030 NOSIG=
c) 30012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT200 20/16 Q1025 BECMG 4000 BR=
d) 25014KT 4500 SHRA SCT015 BKN025CB 25/24 Q1006 NOSIG=
45.
Which statement concerning the tropopause is correct?
a) The layer just above the tropopause is absolutely stable
b) The temperature at the tropopause is approximately -80°C over the Poles and approximately -40°C over the equator
c) Above the tropopause no clear air turbulence occurs
d) In the ICAO standard atmosphere the tropopause lies lower over the Poles than over the equator
46.
What is the temperature at 20.000 FT in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere?
a) -20°C
b) -30°C
c) -25°C
d) -15°C
47.
Frontal fog can be formed by
a) cooling at night
b) condensation of air saturated by adiabatic cooling
c) condensation of air saturated by evaporation of precipitation
d) evaporation of moisture at the surface
48.
Which type of air mass never occurs over central Europe ?
a) Tropical air
b) Arctic air
c) Polar air
d) Equatorial air
49.
With all other quantities being constant, the density of the atmosphere increases with increasing
a) stability
b) temperature
c) air pressure
d) relative humidity
50.
For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is
a) 540 metres
b) 600 metres
c) 120 metres
d) 160 metres
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