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MET-BNC-MODULE15
1.
A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispersed by
a) insolation resulting in the lifting of the condensation level
b) the release of latent heat due to precipitation
c) absorption of solar radiation in the stratus layer
d) adiabatic cooling due to subsidence
2.
Advection fog is most likely to form when
a) cold air is forced over higher ground and further adiabatic cooling occurs
b) warm maritime air flows over a relatively warmer surface and the wind speed is greater than 15 kt
c) cold maritime air flows over a warmer surface and the wind speed is greater than 15 kt
d) a mild moist airstream flows over snow covered ground and the wind speed is less than 10 kt
3.
Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog?
a) A mild moist airstream flowing over colder surfaces with a wind in excess of 30 kt
b) Clear skies at night over an inland marshy area
c) Cold maritime air flowing over a warmer land surface at a speed greater than 15 kt
d) A mild moist airstream flowing over colder surfaces with the wind speed less than 15 kt
4.
Which is true of advection fog?
a) It forms when unstable air is adiabatically cooled
b) It usually forms by night and clears by day
c) It develops slowly and clears fast
d) It can appear suddenly by day or by night
5.
The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:
a) Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.
b) Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.
c) Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range between light and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.
d) Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.
6.
Considering the North Atlantic between 30°N and 65°N, the mean position of the polar front during winter extends from
a) Florida to SW England
b) Iceland to Norway
c) Newfoundland to Iceland
d) NE Canada to Portugal
7.
Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N, the mean position of the polar front during summer extends from
a) Newfoundland to N Scotland
b) Florida to SW England
c) Greenland to Spain
d) NE Canada to Iceland
8.
What is signified if an occlusion is described as "cold"?
a) It derives from a polar depression
b) The air ahead of the associated warm front is less cold than the air behind the associated cold front
c) The air ahead of the associated warm front is colder than the air behind the associated cold front
d) On meeting the warm front, the cold front moves up the warm frontal surface
9.
Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N. During winter the predominant mean low pressure system at the surface is usually centred over
a) Iceland / Greenland
b) Azores
c) USA
d) Siberia
10.
Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjacent land areas during mid-summer, the predominant pressure systems are
a) Scandinavian high and Azores high
b) Azores low and Icelandic high
c) Azores high and weak low over NE Canada
d) weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian high
11.
Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N together with the adjacent land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones at the surface is
a) Siberia, Iceland, Canaries
b) Azores, Siberia
c) NE Canada, Iceland
d) Greenland, Iberian peninsula
12.
Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?
a) It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary
b) It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary
c) It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense
d) It tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sense
13.
Why do tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of the tropical oceans?
a) Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary circulation
b) Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds long sea passage
c) Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive wind shear with increase of height
d) Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and sea
14.
When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia?
a) August to October
b) Not experienced at Darwin
c) May to July
d) December to April
15.
Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?
a) Harmattan
b) Scirocco
c) Chinook
d) Bora
16.
Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most hazardous at temperatures
a) below -40°C in CB
b) between 0°C and -17°C in AS
c) between 0°C and -23°C in large CU
d) between 0°C and -17°C in ST
17.
The formation of clear ice on the leading edges of an aircraft is most likely to be caused by the
a) relatively slow freezing of large supercooled water droplets
b) instantaneous freezing of large supercooled water droplets and snow crystals
c) relatively slow freezing of small supercooled water droplets and ice crystals
d) instantaneous freezing of small supercooled water droplets
18.
What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when flying at FL 170 in AS with the outside air temperature at -20°C?
a) Moderate - hoar frost
b) Severe - clear
c) Light - rime
d) Moderate - clear
19.
Assuming that an initial "trigger" force is present, the conditions most likely to result in the formation of thunderstorms are
a) high relative humidity and instability throughout a deep layer
b) rapid orographic cooling of cloud containing ice crystals
c) high surface temperature, low dew point and high dry adiabatic lapse rate
d) intense surface heating, anticyclonic pressure system and relatively high freezing level
20.
Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting leading to air mass thunderstorms?
a) Advection of warm air over a cold sea
b) Mountain waves
c) Advection of cold air over a warm sea
d) Low level wind shear
21.
Hazardous hailstones, reaching the ground, are most likely to be experienced below CB clouds situated
a) in continental interiors near the equator
b) over the sea in middle latitudes
c) in continental interiors in middle latitudes
d) over the sea near the equator
22.
Of what does lenticular cloud provide evidence?
a) Jet streams
b) Stratospheric inversions
c) Areas of high level clear air turbulence
d) Mountain waves
23.
Which of the following statements is true with regard to mountain waves?
a) Flight with tailwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with headwind toward high ground
b) Flight with headwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with tailwind toward high ground
c) The absence of cloud over high ground indicates the absence of mountain waves
d) Mountain waves are not experienced beyond 100 miles downwind from initiating high ground, regardless of the height of the ground
24.
In a mountainous area, the most hazardous flying conditions associated with standing waves are likely to be experienced
a) on the windward side of the mountain just above the "cap" cloud
b) in the vicinity of the "roll" cloud or rotor zone beneath the first wave on the leeward side
c) just above the lenticular cloud on the windward side
d) between the troughs of the waves particularly 30 NM to 50 NM downwind and close to the tropopause
25.
The temperature at the surface is given as +15°C and at 4000 FT it is +9°C, the state of this layer is said to be:
a) absolutely unstable
b) conditionally unstable
c) unstable
d) stable
26.
Surface temperature inversions are frequently generated by
a) gusting winds increasing surface friction during the day with consequent mixing at the lower levels
b) compression causing the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform cloud
c) terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night
d) an unstable air mass causing convection currents and mixing of the atmosphere at lower levels
27.
The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes that temperature will reduce at the rate of
a) 2°C per 1000 FT up to 65617 FT after which it will remain constant to 104987 FT
b) 2°C per 1000 FT up to 36090 FT and will then increase at 0,3°C per 1000 FT up to 65617 FT
c) 1,98°C per 1000 FT up to 36090 FT after which it remains constant to 65617 FT
d) 1,98°C per 1000 FT up to 36090 FT and will then rise at 0,3°C per 1000 FT up to 65617 FT when it will remain constant
28.
An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 6500 FT from A (600 FT/AMSL - QNH 1012 hPa) to B (930 FT/AMSL - QNH 977 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscale setting remains unchanged at 1012 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface at B will be
a) 4625 FT
b) 6515 FT
c) 5555 FT
d) 5225 FT
29.
For the same horizontal distance between adjacent isobars the gradient wind speed will be least at:
a) 30°N with a cyclonic circulation
b) 30°N in an anticyclone
c) 50°N with a cyclonic circulation
d) 50°N in an anticyclone
30.
When compared to the geostrophic wind in the northern hemisphere, surface friction will cause the surface wind to
a) veer and increase
b) back and increase
c) veer and decrease
d) back and decrease
31.
Sea breezes are most likely to occur when
a) a slack pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist
b) slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high land temperatures
c) a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and clear skies at night exist
d) a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist
32.
From summer to winter the polar front jet stream over the North Atlantic moves
a) towards the north and the speed increases
b) towards the south and the speed decreases
c) towards the north and the speed decreases
d) towards the south and the speed increases
33.
Where is the projection of the polar front jet on the surface stream most likely to be found in relation to the cold and warm fronts of a depression?
a) 300 to 450 NM behind the cold front and 50 to 200 NM ahead of the warm front
b) Up to 200 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm front
c) 50 to 200 NM behind the cold front and 300 to 450 NM ahead of the warm front
d) Up to 100 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm front
34.
The most likely place to encounter clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is
a) close to the core on the side facing the polar air
b) on the tropical side of the core
c) 5000 feet or more above the core
d) well below the core
35.
In addition to a stable layer of air over a substantial mountain range, the conditions most favourable to the development of standing waves are
a) significant moisture loss due to precipitation, rapid lowering of the tropopause in the area of the mountain range
b) conditional instability, wind speed constant from a direction parallel to the mountain range
c) wind speed excess of 20 kt at the surface and increasing with height, wind direction perpendicular to the general direction of the range
d) steep dry adiabatic lapse rate, wind speed increasing and changing direction rapidly with increase in height
36.
Dew point is defined as
a) the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure
b) the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure
c) the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity
d) the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the absorption of latent heat
37.
The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as
a) radiation cooling
b) sublimation
c) supercooling
d) supersaturation
38.
When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is classified as
a) haze
b) mist
c) fog
d) dust fog
39.
An unstable air mass will normally be characterised by
a) cumuliform cloud and good visibility except in precipitation
b) continuous light rain from medium level layer cloud
c) poor visibility due to haze at the lower levels
d) stratiform cloud
40.
For an airfield located in the British Isles, the passage of a warm front will usually be indicated by
a) rise in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind veers and decreases
b) rapid improvement in visibility, pressure falling rapidly, wind veering and increasing
c) rise in temperature, rapid rise in pressure, wind backs and becomes gusty
d) a fall in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind backing and decreasing
41.
A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of
a) divergence and subsidence
b) convergence and subsidence
c) convergence and widespread ascent
d) divergence and widespread ascent
42.
Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression?
a) It forms over land in summer
b) It forms over the ocean in winter
c) It forms over the ocean in summer
d) It forms over land in winter
43.
A Foehn wind occurs on the
a) windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface cooling and reverse air flow
b) windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface heating
c) leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by the condensation level being lower on the leeward side than on the windward side
d) leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by significant moisture loss by precipitation from cloud
44.
What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when aircraft descend rapidly from FL 320 (temp. -45°C) to FL 60 in warm, moist clear air?
a) Light or moderate hoar frost
b) Light opaque rime and light clear ice
c) Moderate opaque rime
d) Nil ice
45.
Thunderstorms are often preceded by:
a) Altocumulus Castellanus
b) Altocumulus Lenticularis
c) Altostratus
d) Nimbostratus
46.
Which of the following sets of conditions are most favourable to the development of thunderstorms?
a) Environmental lapse rate less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate with dew point below 0°C and considerable surface heating
b) Extensive isothermal layer, ice particles and water droplets must exist just below the freezing level and orographic lifting
c) Environmental lapse rate less than dry adiabatic lapse rate with freezing level below the cloud base, high relative humidity and strong surface winds
d) Environmental lapse rate greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate through a great vertical extent, high relative humidity and an initial lifting process
47.
What surface wind is forecast for 2200 UTC ? EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK
a) Variable/05 kt
b) Calm
c) Variable/15 to 25 kt
d) 260°/10 kt
48.
What is the lowest cloud base that can be expected from the forecast for 1500 UTC ? KCHS 280430Z 280606 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 PROB40 SHRA BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK.
a) 1000 feet
b) 1300 feet
c) 1500 feet
d) 3000 feet
49.
What visibility is most likely to be experienced at 1400 UTC ? EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK
a) 9000 metres
b) 4000 metres
c) 1000 metres
d) 1600 metres
50.
What is the lowest possible cloud base forecast for 2300 UTC? EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK
a) 3000 feet
b) 5000 feet
c) 500 feet
d) 1500 feet
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