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MET-BNC-MODULE2
1.
Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy precipitation ?
a) ST.
b) NS.
c) SC.
d) CS.
2.
What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the weather map are very close together?
a) Strong and flowing parallel to the isobars.
b) Moderate and flowing parallel to the isobars.
c) Strong and flowing across the isobars.
d) Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars.
3.
Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?
a) Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
b) Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force.
c) Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force.
d) Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
4.
How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?
a) Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage.
b) Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times.
c) Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of control momentarily.
d) Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in altitude or attitude.
5.
Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO description? "There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's centre of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking are difficult."
a) Light.
b) Violent.
c) Severe.
d) Moderate.
6.
For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind?
a) Hail.
b) Dust and poor visibility.
c) Sand up to FL 150.
d) Thunderstorms.
7.
What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
a) Scirocco.
b) Ghibli.
c) Mistral.
d) Bora.
8.
In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows:
a) during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
b) during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
c) during the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
d) during the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
9.
A high pressure area (slack pressure gradient) covers part of the Mediterranean Sea and coastal region during the summer. What surface wind direction is likely at an airport at the coast on a sunny afternoon?
a) Sea to land.
b) Parallel to the coastline.
c) Land to sea.
d) Variable.
10.
A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows
a) up the slope during the day.
b) up the slope during the night.
c) down the slope during the day.
d) down the slope during the night.
11.
Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 FT/AGL are south-westerly while most of the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of difference between these two wind directions?
a) Friction between the wind and the surface.
b) Stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
c) The influence of warm air at the lower altitude.
d) A strong pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
12.
Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:
a) veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
b) backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
c) backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.
d) veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.
13.
Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift. What effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft's true altitude ?
a) It decreases
b) It increases.
c) Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot be answered.
d) It remains constant.
14.
What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?
a) -75°C.
b) -25°C.
c) -35°C.
d) -55°C.
15.
Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a position where flight over mountains could be dangerous?
a) Warm depression.
b) Warm high.
c) Cold low.
d) Cold high.
16.
In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL 100?
a) Wind from the right.
b) Headwind with no drift.
c) Wind from the left.
d) Tailwind with no drift.
17.
What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through a cold front in the summer over Central Europe at FL 100?
a) Severe turbulence in CB cloud.
b) Light turbulence in CB cloud.
c) Light turbulence in ST cloud.
d) Moderate turbulence in NS cloud.
18.
You are flying at 2 500 FT/AGL, the wind is 180°, and intend to land at an airport, at sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)?
a) South-southwest.
b) South-southeast.
c) Southwest.
d) South.
19.
What are the typical differences with regard to the temperature and humidity between an air mass with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over northern Russia ?
a) The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North-Russian air.
b) The North-Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores.
c) The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North-Russian air.
d) The North-Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores.
20.
Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer?
a) The southern Balkan region and the Near East.
b) The Azores region.
c) Southern Italy.
d) Southern France.
21.
Where does polar continental air originate?
a) The region of the British Isles.
b) The region of Azores.
c) Polar ice cap.
d) Siberian landmass.
22.
In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?
a) Polar maritime air.
b) Arctic maritime air.
c) Polar continental air.
d) Tropical continental air.
23.
With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
a) Cumulonimbus.
b) Nimbostratus.
c) Stratocumulus.
d) Stratus.
24.
At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?
a) Late evening.
b) Shortly after sunrise.
c) Shortly after midnight.
d) At sunset.
25.
What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?
a) 2 000 FT.
b) 5 000 FT.
c) 500 FT.
d) 10 000 FT.
26.
Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?
a) Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air.
b) Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air.
c) Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air.
d) Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air.
27.
What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central Europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0°C, and freezing rain starts to fall?
a) Cold fronts.
b) Warm fronts, warm occlusions.
c) High level cold fronts.
d) Cold occlusions.
28.
Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when approaching an active warm front at medium to low level ?
a) Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground.
b) High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms.
c) Severe thunderstorms at low altitude.
d) Low cloud base and poor visibility.
29.
During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of clouds: Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus. Which of the following are you most likely to encounter ?
a) Increasing temperatures.
b) A strong downdraught.
c) Strong, gusty winds.
d) Decreasing temperatures.
30.
What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass overrides a cold air mass?
a) Cumulonimbus.
b) Altostratus.
c) Cumulus.
d) Nimbostratus.
31.
The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:
a) 1/150
b) 1/300
c) 1/500
d) Jan-50
32.
What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?
a) A low on lee side of a mountain.
b) Heat low.
c) Polar front low.
d) A cold air pool.
33.
In which approximate direction does the centre of a non-occluded frontal depression move?
a) In the direction of the warm sector isobars.
b) In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front.
c) In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front.
d) In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase.
34.
Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front characteristics?
a) Ahead of the front.
b) At the junction of the occlusion.
c) At the surface position of the front.
d) Behind the front.
35.
What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest?
a) Warm front.
b) Cold occlusion.
c) Warm occlusion.
d) Cold front.
36.
Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a depression during winter?
a) Fair weather CU.
b) ST.
c) CI, CS.
d) CU, CB.
37.
What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North Sea, approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front?
a) Advection fog.
b) 8 octas CS, AS without precipitation.
c) Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showers.
d) Rain covering a large area, 8 octas NS.
38.
What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical maritime air, during a summer afternoon in western Europe ?
a) Very good (greater than 50 km).
b) Moderate (several km).
c) Very poor (less than 1 km).
d) Good (greater than 10 km).
39.
Which one of the following statements regarding the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct?
a) Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ.
b) The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of the year.
c) Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area of the ITCZ.
d) The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream.
40.
In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?
a) 7° - 12°N.
b) 3° - 8°S.
c) 0° - 7°N.
d) 8° - 12°S.
41.
What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India?
a) Sandstorms.
b) Fog.
c) Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain.
d) Stratus clouds and drizzle.
42.
After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the cold air, what will you encounter at FL 50, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in temperature?
a) A veering in the wind direction.
b) A decrease in tailwind.
c) A backing in the wind direction.
d) An increase in tailwind.
43.
When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?
a) March to May and August to October.
b) March to May and October to November.
c) December to February and July to October.
d) April to July and December to February.
44.
Which of the following best describes the intertropical convergence zone ?
a) The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the southern hemisphere.
b) The zone where the west winds meet the subtropical high pressure belt.
c) The zone where the Harmattan meets the north-easterly trade winds over Africa.
d) The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics.
45.
What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Caribbean area?
a) East then south.
b) West in the earlier stages and later turning south east.
c) West deep into the USA.
d) West in the earlier stages and later turning north east.
46.
During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern hemisphere?
a) Summer and autumn.
b) Winter and spring.
c) All seasons.
d) Winter.
47.
What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air pool?
a) Strong westerly winds.
b) Sky clear (SKC).
c) Fine weather CU.
d) Showers and thunderstorms.
48.
How do you recognize a cold air pool?
a) As a high pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
b) A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a low pressure area.
c) As a low pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
d) A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a high pressure area.
49.
What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land in the winter?
a) NS with continuous rain.
b) The possibility of snow showers.
c) A tendency for fog and low ST.
d) Thunderstorms.
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