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MET-BNC-MODULE3
1.
In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone ?
a) Calm winds, haze.
b) TS, SH.
c) CB, TS.
d) NS.
2.
At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east generally at their most southerly position?
a) Winter.
b) Autumn.
c) Summer.
d) Spring.
3.
What is the relationship between visibility and RVR in homogeneous fog?
a) There is no specific relationship between the two.
b) The visibility generally is less than the RVR.
c) The visibility generally is greater than the RVR.
d) The visibility generally is the same as the RVR.
4.
The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?
a) On a mast 6-10 m above the runway.
b) 1 m above the runway.
c) Close to the station about 2 m above the ground.
d) On the roof of the weather station.
5.
You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12°C and a TAS of 250 kt at FL 150 through 8 oktas NS. What type and degree of icing is most probable?
a) In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice.
b) Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice.
c) In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe clear ice.
d) Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost.
6.
You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a fine and hot summer day. What is the best time of day to conduct this flight?
a) Morning.
b) Afternoon.
c) Early evening.
d) Mid-day.
7.
At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?
a) Autumn, winter.
b) Summer, autumn.
c) Winter.
d) Spring, summer.
8.
In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to warm updrafts?
a) Around midnight.
b) Early morning.
c) Late morning.
d) Mid - afternoon.
9.
During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to occur ?
a) Mature stage.
b) Cumulus stage and mature stage.
c) Dissipating stage.
d) Cumulus stage.
10.
Where is a squall line to be expected?
a) In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels.
b) At the surface position of a warm front.
c) In front of an active cold front.
d) Behind a cold front.
11.
What are squall lines?
a) The paths of tropical revolving storms.
b) The surface weather associated with upper air troughs.
c) Unusual intensive cold fronts.
d) Bands of intensive thunderstorms.
12.
Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with strong winds from the south (Foehn)?
a) Good visibility, turbulence.
b) Icing, huge mass of clouds.
c) Decrease in temperature, moderate to severe icing.
d) Continuous precipitation, severe turbulence.
13.
What weather is prevalent in easterly waves?
a) Thunderstorms and rain.
b) Continuous rain.
c) Clear skies.
d) Frontal weather.
14.
What winds and air mass characteristics are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon regions of the Indian sub-continent?
a) North-westerly winds bringing dry and hazy air.
b) North-easterly winds bringing dry and hazy air.
c) South-easterly winds carrying warm and humid air.
d) South-westerly winds carrying warm and humid air.
15.
What is the meaning of the expression "FEW"?
a) 5 - 7 oktas.
b) 8 oktas.
c) 1 - 2 oktas.
d) 3 - 4 oktas.
16.
When is the RVR reported at most airports?
a) When the visibility decreases below 1500 m.
b) When the RVR decreases below 2500 m.
c) When the RVR decreases below 2000 m.
d) When the visibility decreases below 2000 m.
17.
How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts ?
a) The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots.
b) The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots.
c) The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour.
d) The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per hour.
18.
What positions are connected by contour lines on a weather chart?
a) Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure.
b) Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levels.
c) Positions with the same air density.
d) Positions with the same wind velocity.
19.
In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?
a) 24 hour surface forecast.
b) 300 hPa chart.
c) Significant Weather Chart.
d) 500 hPa chart.
20.
On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a jetstream?
a) Wind / temperature chart.
b) Surface chart.
c) Significant weather chart.
d) Upper air chart.
21.
What is the best approximation for the wind speed at flight level 250?
a) By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart.
b) By simple interpolation of wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa charts.
c) By reading wind direction and speed from the 500 hPa chart.
d) By interpolation of the wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa charts, while also considering the maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather Chart.
22.
Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight documentation in the tropics?
a) The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart.
b) The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very low and therefore not important.
c) The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown.
d) The tropopause is always at the same height.
23.
In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note: TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone instance ?
a) 20 minutes.
b) 10 minutes.
c) 120 minutes.
d) 60 minutes.
24.
How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart?
a) ISOL CB.
b) OCNL CB.
c) FRQ CB.
d) EMBD CB.
25.
Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
a) Altocumulus
b) Altostratus
c) Cirrostratus
d) Cumulonimbus
26.
Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?
a) It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
b) It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
c) It is, by definition, a temperature inversion
d) It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere
27.
What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS and AS cloud coverage?
a) Lifting
b) Convection process
c) Sinking
d) Radiation
28.
Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud ?
a) CC
b) AS
c) ST
d) CS
29.
In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered?
a) Below the freezing level in clear air
b) Within cloud of any type
c) In clear air above the freezing level
d) In Nimbostratus cloud
30.
What flying conditions are normally encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?
a) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; nil icing.
b) Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; light to moderate rime ice.
c) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; light to moderate icing.
d) Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; nil icing.
31.
Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog ?
a) Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night
b) A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground
c) A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a sinking air mass
d) A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground
32.
Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)?
a) The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun
b) Cold air moving over warm water
c) The coastal region of the sea cools at night
d) Warm air moving over cold water
33.
How does freezing rain develop?
a) Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°C
b) Through melting of ice crystals
c) Snow falls through a layer where temperatures are above 0°C
d) Through melting of snow grains
34.
What type of cloud can produce hail showers?
a) NS
b) CS
c) AC
d) CB
35.
In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate ?
a) Baltic Sea
b) East of Greenland
c) Black Sea
d) Region of British Isles
36.
In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered ?
a) Ahead of a cold front in the winter
b) Ahead of a cold front in the summer
c) Behind a warm front in the summer
d) Ahead of a warm front in the winter
37.
How do air masses move at a warm front ?
a) Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
b) Warm air overrides a cold air mass
c) Cold air overrides a warm air mass
d) Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
38.
What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front?
a) Light to moderate continuous rain
b) Showers associated with thunderstorms
c) Freezing rain
d) Drizzle
39.
What is the relative movement of the two air masses along a cold front ?
a) Cold air pushes under a warm air mass
b) Cold air slides over a warm air mass
c) Warm air pushes under a cold air mass
d) Warm air pushes over a cold air mass
40.
What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over Central Europe in the summer ?
a) Fair weather CU
b) ST with drizzle
c) Sky clear
d) BKN CU and CB
41.
Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?
a) The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front
b) The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the front
c) The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the front
d) The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
42.
When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in Europe?
a) Winter
b) Autumn and winter
c) Summer
d) Winter and spring
43.
In which main direction does a polar front depression move?
a) Along the front towards the east
b) Across the front towards the south
c) Across the front towards the north
d) Along the front towards the west
44.
What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high?
a) Divergence at higher levels
b) Rising air
c) Sinking air
d) Instability
45.
On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?
a) W coast
b) SE coast
c) NE coast
d) N coast
46.
What is characteristic of the pamperos?
a) A marked advance of cold air in South America
b) A marked advance of cold arctic air in North America
c) Foehn conditions in the Spanish Pyrenees
d) Katabatic winds in the Atlas Mountains
47.
Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be encountered?
a) At the latitudes of Algeria
b) In the vicinity of Dakar
c) Near the Canary Islands
d) At the latitudes of Gibraltar
48.
Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?
a) SW monsoon and NW monsoon
b) NW monsoon and SW trade winds
c) SW monsoon and NW trade winds
d) SE trade winds and NE trade winds
49.
From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?
a) NE
b) SW
c) N
d) SE
50.
What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from south?
a) Heavy airframe icing conditions on the northern side of the Alps
b) Strong north winds on the southern side of the Alps
c) Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alps
d) Heavy clear air turbulence on the southern side of the Alps
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