MET-BNC-MODULE6

MET-BNC-MODULE6

1. What is the difference between radiation fog and advection fog ?

a) Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime cooling.
b) Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface.
c) Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea.
d) Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by evaporation over the sea.

2. Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000 feet wind

a) in front of the warm front
b) at the apex of the wave
c) in the warm sector
d) behind the cold front

3. What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front ?

a) At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CB
b) At some 500 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km thickening AS
c) At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front
d) Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS begin

4. A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you expect ?

a) Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within the warm sector the rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the cold front.
b) Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The precipitation stops for several hours within the warm sector. On the arrival of the cold front, showers within a couple of hours.
c) Continuous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of some 24 hours.
d) Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the warm sector within 12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold front.

5. What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion ?

a) Clear ice
b) Stability
c) Instability
d) Area of active storms

6. What pressure is defined as QFE?

a) The pressure at field elevation
b) The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures
c) The pressure of the altimeter
d) The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures

7. In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction towards the low pressure area because:

a) turbulence is formed and pressure increases
b) turbulence is formed and pressure decreases
c) the pressure gradient increases
d) wind speed decreases and therefore coriolis force decreases

8. The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the:

a) valley during daylight hours.
b) mountain at night.
c) valley during daylight as much as at night.
d) mountain during daylight hours.

9. The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure

a) reduced to sea level
b) at height of observatory
c) at flight level
d) at a determined density altitude

10. What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog?

a) Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the range
b) Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills.
c) Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidity
d) High relative humidity and an unstable air mass

11. What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere ?

a) 10 % oxygen, 89 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
b) 21 % oxygen, 78 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
c) 50 % oxygen, 40 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
d) 88 % oxygen, 9 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses

12. How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause?

a) Increases
b) At first it increases and higher up it decreases
c) Decreases
d) Remains constant

13. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence ?

a) Altocumulus lenticularis
b) Cirrocumulus
c) Nimbostratus
d) Stratocumulus

14. Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually flown ?

a) Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
b) Air temperature higher than standard
c) Air temperature lower than standard.
d) Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude.

15. Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain waves ?

a) Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
b) Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
c) Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
d) Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots blowing parallel to the mountain ridge.

16. An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270 and experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL 310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by:

a) Climbing
b) Descending
c) Turn right
d) Maintain FL 270

17. The jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by

a) long streaks of cirrus clouds.
b) a high-pressure centre at high level
c) a constant outside air temperature
d) dust or haze at high level

18. During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar front jet stream moves toward the

a) south and speed decreases
b) north and speed increases
c) north and speed decreases
d) south and speed increases

19. What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars ?

a) Coriolis force
b) Surface friction
c) Greater atmospheric pressure at the surface
d) Greater density of the air at the surface

20. Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15Â°C and dew point of 12Â°C blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5Â°C ?

a) Radiation fog
b) Frontal fog
c) Steam fog
d) Advection fog

21. In addition to a lifting action, what are two other requirements necessary for thunderstorm formation ?

a) Unstable conditions and high moisture content
b) Stable conditions and high moisture content
c) Unstable conditions and high atmospheric pressure
d) Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure

22. If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the warm air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of freezing rain the lowest ?

a) 5000 feet
b) 12000 feet
c) 9000 feet
d) 3000 feet

23. From the following TAF you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be: EGBB 261000Z 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2224 26010KT

a) more than 10 km
b) a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km.
c) a maximum 5 km.
d) not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km.

24. What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas ?

a) Katabatic force
b) Surface friction
c) Coriolis force
d) The pressure gradient force

25. Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around high- and low-pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart.

a) When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by stationary lenticular clouds.
b) Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature.
c) Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars.
d) When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.

26. What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions ?

a) Advection.
b) Radiation.
c) Orographic.
d) Steam.

27. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accretion ?

a) Freezing rain.
b) Snow.
c) Cirrus clouds.
d) Stratus clouds.

28. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that

a) there are thunderstorms in the area
b) a cold front has passed
c) a warm front has passed
d) freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude

29. Continuous updraughts occur in a thunderstorm during the

a) dissipating stage.
b) initial stage.
c) period in which precipitation is falling.
d) mature stage.

30. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the

a) dissipating stage.
b) period in which precipitation is not falling.
c) cumulus stage.
d) mature stage.

31. The most dangerous form of airframe icing is

a) dry ice.
b) clear ice.
c) hoar frost.
d) rime ice.

32. The degree of clear air turbulence experienced by an aircraft is proportional to the

a) stability of the air
b) intensity of vertical and horizontal wind shear
c) intensity of the solar radiation
d) height of the aircraft

33. In an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the weather likely to be experienced is:

a) strong wind associated with an almost clear sky
b) light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling
c) strong wind shear, convection and snow showers
d) strong wind with subsidence at low levels

34. Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?

a) Lower stratosphere
b) Upper stratosphere
c) Ozone layer
d) Troposphere

35. The temperature at FL 80 is +6Â°C. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?

a) -4Â°C
b) -6Â°C
c) 0Â°C
d) +2Â°C

36. The temperature at FL 110 is -5Â°C. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?

a) 0Â°C
b) +3Â°C
c) -3Â°C
d) +7Â°C

37. The temperature at FL 160 is -22Â°C. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?

a) 0Â°C
b) +4Â°C
c) -4Â°C
d) -8Â°C

38. A temperature of +15Â°C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level?

a) -2Â°C
b) 0Â°C
c) +4Â°C
d) +2Â°C

39. How would you characterise an air temperature of -15Â°C at the 700 hPa level over western Europe?

a) 20Â°C below standard
b) Low
c) Within +/-5Â°C of ISA
d) High

40. How would you characterise an air temperature of -30Â°C at the 300 hPa level over western Europe?

a) Within +/-5Â°C of ISA
b) High
c) Very low
d) Low

41. How would you characterise an air temperature of -55Â°C at the 200 hPa level over western Europe?

a) High
b) Low
c) Very high
d) Within +/-5Â°C of ISA

42. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?

a) Subsidence
b) Adiabatic
c) Inversion
d) Advection

43. The station pressure used in surface weather charts is

a) QFE
b) QFF
c) QNE
d) QNH

44. Which FL corresponds with the 300 hPa pressure level ?

a) FL 300
b) FL 390
c) FL 100
d) FL 50

45. Which FL corresponds with the 500 hPa pressure level ?

a) FL 100
b) FL 180
c) FL 160
d) FL 390

46. Which FL corresponds with the 700 hPa pressure level ?

a) FL 390
b) FL 100
c) FL 180
d) FL 300

47. Which FL corresponds with the 850 hPa pressure level ?

a) FL 390
b) FL100
c) FL 50
d) FL 300

48. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10Â°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?

a) Less than 1016 hPa
b) More than 1016 hPa
c) 1016 hPa
d) It is not possible to give a definitive answer

49. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10Â°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?

a) Less than 1016 hPa
b) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
c) 1016 hPa
d) More than 1016 hPa

50. The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10Â°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?

a) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
b) Less than 1009 hPa
c) More than 1009 hPa
d) 1009 hPa

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