This page requires a JavaScript-enabled browser
Instructions on how to enable your browser are contained in the help file.
TUSHAR PAPER-MCQM-FINAL
1.
A standard hold is made over an NDB with the inbound track of the hold = 100 which of the following combinations is correct:
a) Aircraft approaches NDB with RMI (ADF needle) reading steady 330. On crossing overhead, Hdg to be flown = 100 (M)
b) ADF needle on RMI reads 350. Sector = Direct
c) Aircraft on Hdg(C) = 110. Dev = 3 E. Var =2 W. LSR = 005. Sector = Offset
d) Aircraft approaches NDB with RMI (ADF needle) reading steady 225. On crossing overhead, Hdg to be flown = 250 (M)
2.
A and B are on the parallel of 30°N and A’s longitude is 008° W. If G/c Brg of B from A is 087, the longitude of B is
a) 004°E
b) 002°E
c) 004°W
d) 008°E
3.
Density altitude will be equal to pressure altitude when
a) At sea level
b) Altimeter has no installation errors
c) Altimeter is set to 29.92 inches
d) Standard temperature conditions exist
4.
The shortest distance from pt ‘X’ 60°N 015°E to pt ‘Y’ 75°N 165°W is
a) 7200 Nm
b) 2700 Km
c) 7200 Sm
d) 2700 Nm
5.
Aircraft present heading 170 (M) , ADF reading 345 (R) . Make 45 degree intercept on radial 355. What shall be the heading to inrercept and ADF indication at the time of intercept?
a) 175/310
b) 130 /045
c) 040 / 315
d) 235 / 030
6.
Increasing density will -------- V1, -----------VR -----------VLOF ?
a) increase decrease increase
b) decrease increase decrease
c) increase increase increase
d) decrease decrease decrease
7.
With increase in weight?
a) VX decreases VY increases
b) VX increases and VY decreases
c) VX decreases VY decreases
d) VX increases VY increases
8.
ACARS stands for
a) Aircraft collision avoidance and reporting system
b) Airborne communication and reporting system
c) Aircraft communication addressing and reporting system
d) Aircraft communication addressing and recording system
9.
The standard colour for an FMS active planned route is?
a) White
b) Cyan
c) Magenta
d) Red
10.
Dry operating mass 40 t RLW 49.55 t RTOW 65 t MZFW 48 t Burn off 12.89 t Reserve 1.65 t
Calculate maximum permissible take off wt and pay load
a) 62.4/9.55 t
b) 64/7.9 t
c) 64/9.55 t
d) 62.4/7.9 t
11.
Weather radar data can not be displayed on the EHSI in which of the following modes?
a) MAP
b) ILS
c) PLAN
d) VOR
12.
The following observations are recorded on a compass swing.Landing compass :
Hdg (M) Aircraft compass : Hdg (C)
184 183
272 268
000 353
088 088
The value of co-efficient A, the total deviation on Hdg 225 and the Hdg that the aircraft compass must be made to read on Hdg 268 to correct for co-efficient A is
a) None of the above
b) +3/2/265
c) -3/2/265
d) +3 /2/271
13.
The runway orientation is 05/23. W/V is 110/40 Kts. The HW component for landing on Rwy 05 and the cross wind component for landing on Rwy 23 =
a) 25/30
b) 22/33
c) 20 / 35
d) 35/22
14.
The upper limit of the white arc on an ASI is
a) VFE
b) Vso
c) Vs1
d) VNE
15.
VREF will be increased by?
a) increased flap angle
b) increased take-off mass
c) increased take-off mass
d) increased landing mass
16.
Which of the following is correct when the variation is West?
a) True North is East of Magnetic North.
b) Compass North is West of Magnetic North.
c) Magnetic North is West of Compass North.
d) True North is West of Magnetic North.
17.
A flight is planned with a fuel flow of 2000 lbs/hr. The PSR was calculated to be at 800 Nm from the departure aerodrome. If the actual in-flt fuel consumption is observed to be 2200 lbs/hour, the location of PSR from the departure point is
a) 710 Nm
b) 720 Nm
c) 880 Nm
d) 822 Nm
18.
On a Mercator chart, the GC is a curve
a) Concave to the pole
b) Both b and c
c) Concave to the parallels of origin
d) Concave to the equator
19.
The monitor facility of a VOR removes the Ident from the transmission if the radial information is found to be in error greater than
a) 3 deg
b) 4 deg
c) 2 deg
d) 1 deg
20.
Which of the following statements is untrue about an aircraft maintaining glide path on an ILS approach?
a) If the glide path angle increases, the ROD increases
b) A faster aircraft has higher rate of descent
c) If the tailwind increases, the ROD increases
d) A heavier aircraft has higher rate of descent
21.
In which month is the difference between apparent noon and mean noon the greatest?
a) June and December
b) January and July
c) March and September
d) November and February
22.
An aircraft is on Hdg(M) = 222°. OBS setting = 250°. The CDI indicates half full scale deflection left and the sector indicated is ‘FROM’. The aircraft is on radial
a) 255
b) 065
c) 075
d) 245
23.
Aerodrome elevation 235 ft, apron elevation 225 ft, height of altimeter above apron 20 ft Altimeter reading with QFE set 40 ft. The instrument error is:
a) 30 ft
b) 50 ft
c) 10 ft
d) 60 ft
24.
Compared to still air conditions, a headwind will?
a) Decrease TODR and increase climb gradient
b) Increases TODR and climb gradient
c) Decrease TODR and climb gradient
d) Increases TODR and decreases climb gradient
25.
Two meridians which are 3 deg apart are represented on a Mercator chart at a spacing of 22.224 cms. The scale of this chart at 60° North is
a) 1 : 3 000 000
b) 1 : 750 000
c) 1: 2000 000
d) 1 : 500 000
26.
An aircraft is maintaining track outbound from an NDB with a constant relative bearing of 184°. To return to the NDB the relative bearing to maintain is:
a) 356°.
b) 184°
c) 000°.
d) 004°
27.
What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60° N between meridians 010°E and 030°W at a groundspeed of 480 kt?
a) 1 hr 45 min
b) 2 hr 30 min
c) 5 hr 00 min
d) 1 hr 15 min
28.
The LMT at Allahabad (082 deg 30’ E) when GMT = 2322 on 31 Dec 05 =
a) 1752 - 31 dec 05
b) None of the above
c) 2322 - 01 Jan 06
d) 0452 - 01 Jan 06
29.
An aircraft is at latitude 10N and is flying South at 444 km/hour. After 3 hours the latitude is?
a) 02N
b) 0N/S
c) 02S
d) 10S
30.
Increasing headwind will ----- V1, ------VR, --------VLOF?
a) decrease increase decrease
b) increase increase increase
c) increase not affect not affect
d) decrease decrease decrease
31.
1000 litres of fuel of SG 0.8 will weigh
a) 700 kg
b) 800 kg
c) 900 kg
d) 1800 kgs
32.
Which of the following is correct?
a) VR Ë‚ VMCA Ë‚ VLOF
b) V2MIN Ë‚ VMCA Ë‚ VMU
c) VMU Ë‚ VMCA Ë‚ V1
d) VS Ë‚ VMCA Ë‚ V2MIN
33.
Route distance from dep to dest = 625 Nm. Aircraft climbs for 30 mins at G/S 160Kts and descends at 180 Kts G/S for 20 mins. Cruise G/S is 250 Kts. Flying time =
a) 2 : 35
b) 2 : 11
c) 1 : 57
d) 02: 46
34.
Aircraft is maintaining Hdg(c)= 225 and proceeding out from an airport. Deviation = 3 W. Variation = 2 E. Drift being experienced = 5 S. NDB and VOR are co-located at the airport and tuned to indicate on the RMI. Variation at the VOR station = 10 E. What are the VOR and ADF indications on the RMI?
a) 219/227
b) 219/229
c) 029/037
d) 039/047
35.
An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line or an airborne weather display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of the observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading of 020° with the magnetic variation of 25°W.
a) 325°
b) 145°
c) 205°
d) 195°
36.
The distance flown by an aircraft in 40 seconds at a G/S of 480 kts is represented on a chart by a line 3.6 cm long. The chart scale is
a) 1 : 250000
b) 1 : 6000000
c) 1 : 500 000
d) 1 : 274370
37.
An aircraft is maintaining 270 (c) on a DICS. If the IAS is changed from 145 Kts to 120 Kts
a) Hdg(C) changes to 265 deg
b) Hdg(C) changes to 275 deg
c) The compass continues to read Hdg 270
d) The effect depends on the hemisphere that the aircraft is flying in
38.
The vertical position of an aircraft in the Transition layer is reported as:-
a) Both b and c
b) Altitude when climbing
c) Altitude when descending
d) FL when climbing
39.
To achieve a max range of 180 Nm, a pulse radar should have a PRF of
a) 450 PPS
b) 448 PPS
c) 447 PPS
d) 451 PPS
40.
After flying for 90Nm, you find you are drifted 9Nm stbd of track. The track error is
a) 9°P
b) 6°P
c) 9°S
d) 6°S
41.
Time taken for a rate 1 turn (clockwise) from 090° to 245° is
a) 55 seconds
b) 52 seconds
c) 1 min
d) 2 mins
42.
Using the following table, determine which aircraft covers the maximum distance for a given value of FOB on a track of 045 (T)
AIRCRAFT FLIGHT LEVEL TAS FUEL FLOW (KG/HR) W/V
(a) A 310 478 7900 130/35
(b) B 350 445 7560 120/45
(c) C 370 437 7200 100/55
a) B
b) Both A and C
c) C
d) A
43.
By what amount you change your rate of decent given a 10 kt increase in head wind on a 3 degree glide path
a) 30 ft/ min increase
b) 50 ft / min increase
c) 50 ft/ min decrease
d) 30 ft/ min decrease
44.
A perfect gyro of a DI is compensated for apparent drift at 40°S. What is the observed drift at 40°N ?
a) None of the above
b) 9.67°/hr readings decreasing
c) + 9.67°/hr
d) 19.34 °/hr readings increasing
45.
What effect does increasing altitude have on VMBE?
a) decrease
b) no effect
c) increase
d) increase or decrease depending on mass
46.
An aircraft takes off from Izmir airport (Elev 330 feet) with its altimeter reading zero. The QNH at Izmir is 1013 Hpa. It lands at Antalya (Elev 30 feet) where the QNH is 1002. If the baroscale has not been reset during flight: - What is the reading on the altimeter on landing?
a) 30/1001
b) 60/1000
c) 30/1002
d) 30/1002
47.
SSR code 2000 is used by an aircraft
a) None of the above
b) To indicate unlawful interference with aircraft
c) For conspicuity
d) When approaching SSR airspace from a region where SSR was not mandatory
48.
Which of the following OBS/CDI combinations indicate that an aircraft is within 180-269 radials of a VOR?
a) 090; TO/Fly Right
b) 270; TO/Fly Right
c) 090; TO/Fly Left
d) 270; TO/Fly Left
49.
A DME beacon having a transmit frequency of 962 MHz would have a receive frequency of:
a) 1025 Mhz
b) 1030 Mhz
c) 962 Mhz
d) 902 Mhz
50.
DME is_____________radar, operating in the _____________ band , transmitting _____________from an airborne interrogator
a) Secondary radar, SHF, pulses spaced at 8, 17 or 21 μ seconds depending on the mode
b) Secondary radar, SHF, pairs of pulses
c) Secondary radar, UHF, pairs of pulses
d) Secondary radar, EHF, pulses spaced at 8, 17 or 21 μ seconds depending on the mode
51.
A flight is to be made from P (75 N 120 W) to Q (75 N 60 E). The difference in the great circle and rhumb line tracks between these two points is
a) 1000 Nm
b) 1234 Nm
c) 999 Nm
d) 995 Nm
52.
. In a projection
a) Scale can be constant but never correct
b) Scale can never be constant
c) Orthomorphism and Conformality can never be achived together
d) Shapes of large areas can be indicated correctly if conformality is achieved
53.
The purpose of the pseudo-random noise codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
a) pass the navigation and system data
b) pass the ephemeris and time information
c) identify the satellites
d) pass the almanac data
54.
ADF indicates a bearing change of 10 deg in 2 mins. TAS is 115 Kts. The distance to the beacon is
a) 36 Nm
b) 15 Nm
c) 23 Nm
d) 32 Nm
55.
A parallel of latitude is a -:
a) RL and can never be a GC
b) RL and in a special case can also be a GC
c) A GC for all practical purpose except in polar regions.
d) A small circle and can never be a GC
56.
In an a/c RMI shows 042° and Var-2W. Find(i) QTE (ii) QDM, (iii) QDR (iv) QUJ
a) None of the above
b) 220/042/222/040
c) 220/040/220/042
d) 224/042/222/044
57.
Apparent wander is due to
a) Misalignment of the lubber line
b) Component H
c) None of the above
d) Component Z
58.
The LMT of a place is with reference to
a) PM anti meridian
b) Observer’s anti meridian
c) Sun’s antemeridian
d) Prime meridian
59.
On a chart, 49 nautical miles is represented by 7.0 centimetres. What is the scale?
a) 1/700,000
b) 1/1,296,400
c) 1/2,015,396
d) 1/1,156,600
60.
Adiabatic heating error causes
a) Higher indication of EGT
b) Over- reading on OAT gauge
c) None of the above
d) Under- reading on OAT gauge
61.
An aircraft is going from NDB A to NDB B. The rel brgs of A and B are 185 and 005 respectively. The aircraft is
a) Left of track
b) None of the above
c) On track
d) Right of track
62.
Distance to PSR is calculated to be 1800 Nm. TAS = 600 Kts. Forecast W/V = Light and variable. In flt the winds are observed to be beam at 30 kts. The new distance to PSR will be
a) more than 1800 Nm
b) less than 1800 Nm
c) 1855 Nm
d) 1800 Nm
63.
Local speed of sound
a) Decreases with increase in temp
b) Increases with increase in TAS
c) Decreases with decrease in temp
d) Increases with increase in altitude
64.
You are flying at FL330 at Mach No 0.9M. Ambient temperature is ISA +15°. What is your TAS?
a) 540 knots
b) 600 knots
c) 595 knots
d) 505 knots
65.
What are the errors in a DGI ?
1) Transport wander 2) Earth rate 3) Heading errors when banking and pitching 4) Mechanical imperfections
a) All of the above
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,2,3
d) 1,2,4
66.
EAS is IAS corrected for errors due to
a) Instrument, compressibility and Hysteresis
b) Instrument. Pressure, Density
c) Instrument and Pressure only
d) Instrument, Pressure, Compressibility
67.
TAS = 130 kts. W/V = 090/30 Glide slope angle = 3. On ILS approach to Rwy 09, the ROD = -------------------- feet per minute
a) 350
b) 500
c) 850
d) 390
68.
Which of the following is the maximum speed for raising or lowering landing gear?
a) V3
b) V4
c) VLE
d) VLO
69.
QFE at Hyd airport = 962 Hpa. QNH = 1020 Hpa. An aircraft is inbound to Hyd at FL 350 and tunes the VOR ‘HHY’. The earliest range at which HHY will be received at the aircraft is:
a) None of the above
b) 222 Nm
c) 286 Sm
d) 530 km
70.
Distance A to B = 1900 Nm. TAS = 300 Kts. Wind velocity = 40 kts head wind on the O/B. Total fuel = 22 t. Reserve = 2 t. Fuel flow outbound = 2500 kg/hr. Fuel flow inbound = 2000 kg/hr. Dist to PSR =
a) 950 Nm
b) 1290 Nm
c) 1822 Nm
d) 475 Km
71.
An aircraft takes off and sets course on 270 from place A (60 S, 120 E) at 0600 LMT when the sun was just rising. What ground speed should the aircraft maintain to reach place B in the same lat at 60 E longitude when the sun is just rising. What is the arrival time in LMT and GMT?
a) 900 Kts/0600 LMT/1000 GMT
b) 750 Kts/0600 LMT/0200 GMT
c) 450 Kts/0200 LMT/0600 GMT
d) 450 Kts/0600 LMT/0200 GMT
72.
An aircraft takes off from point A (30° N, 008° W) and flies a R/L track of 090 deg. G/S = 330 Kts. Flying time to point B = 02: 22. The longitude of B and the G/C brg from A to B =
a) 008° 22’ E/089°
b) 023° 2’ W/095°
c) 017°2’ E/086°
d) 007° 2’ E/086°
73.
Heading is 156 (T), TAS is 320 kts, W/V is 130/45. What is your true track?
a) 104
b) 222
c) 152
d) 160
74.
Which of the following is untrue about sky waves
a) Attenuation decreases with frequency
b) Skip distance decreases by night
c) The dead space increases with frequency
d) Skip distance increases with frequency
75.
The ‘departure’ between positions 60°N 160° E and 60° N ‘x’ is 900 NM. What is the longitude of ‘x’?
a) 140°W
b) 175° E.
c) 145° E.
d) 170°W.
76.
You leave A to fly to B, 475 nm away, at 1000 hours. Your ETA at B is 1130. At 1040, you are 190 nm from A. What groundspeed is required to arrive on time at B?
a) 360 knots
b) 317 knots
c) 330 knots
d) 342 knots
77.
‘Conformality’ implies
a) Orthomorphism
b) Equal Areas
c) Correct Distances
d) Correct scale
78.
The middle marker on an ILS transmits at
a) 75 MHz modulated at 3000 Hz
b) 75 MHz modulated at 1300 Hz
c) 3000 Hz modulated at 75 MHz
d) 1300 Hz modulated at 75 MHz
79.
The final reserve fuel for an aeroplane having reciprocating engines should be sufficient to fly for:
a) 45 min
b) 30 min
c) 5 min
d) 15 min
80.
An aircraft is turned right and is banked right. The ball of the Turn and Bank indicator is displaced to the right. The bank condition, state of flight and Pilot action is
a) Under banked, slipping into the turn, apply right rudder
b) Over banked, slipping into the turn, apply right rudder
c) Under banked, skidding out of the turn, apply right rudder
d) Under banked, slipping into the turn , apply left rudder
81.
To avoid night effect:
a) Use NDBs closer to the coast and fly at higher altitudes
b) Use higher frequency beacons and lower powered beacons
c) Fly at lower altitudes and use A2A modulated beacons
d) Use lower frequency and higher powered beacons
82.
If an aircraft is descending at constant Mach no, the TAS
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Decreases only in an isothermal layer
d) Increases only in an isothermal layer
83.
Runway slope has certain effects on take off performance?
a) Downhill slope decreases V2
b) Downhill slope increases V1
c) Downhill slope decreases V1
d) Downhill slope increases V2
84.
The Mach meter accuracy is
a) 0.01 M and 0.02 Mach at the extreme range
b) 0.01 M and 0.03 Mach at the extreme range
c) 0.03 M and 0.04 Mach at the extreme range
d) 0.02 M and 0.03 Mach at the extreme range
85.
When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classical artificial horizon?
a) Too much nose-up and bank correct
b) Attitude and bank correct
c) Too much nose-up and bank too high
d) Too much nose-up and bank too low
86.
Given: Airport elevation = 1000 feet, QNH = 988 hPa, what is the approximate airport pressure altitude? (Asssume 1 hPa = 27 feet)
a) 680 feet
b) 320 feet
c) -320 feet
d) 1680 feet
87.
Scale on a Mercator chart at 30° N is 1 : 3 500 000. The scale at 40° N =
a) 1 : 3 080 000
b) 1 : 3 956 806
c) 1 : 2 817 500
d) 1 : 3 095 932
88.
The wind pattern between Kolkata and Port Blair is generally westerly. The PET on flights between Kolkata and Port Blair will be
a) Always at the mid way point
b) Closer to Port Blair as compared to the mid way point
c) Closer to the Kolkata coast as compared to the midway point
d) Closer to Port Blair on outbound flights to Kolkata
89.
In a DG/DI, the purpose of the caging knob is
a) To reset the heading
b) To prevent gyro toppling
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) To prevent real drift of the gyro
90.
The radio altimeter works on the principle of
a) Measuring the echo time of pulses
b) Comparing outgoing and incoming pulse widths
c) Comparing outgoing and incoming frequencies of a frequency modulated transmission and multiplying this with known rate of change of frequency
d) Comparing amplitudes of outgoing and incoming frequencies of a frequency modulated transmission
91.
In an Isothermal layer
a) None of the above.
b) Temperature increases with altitude
c) Temperature remains constant with altitude
d) Temperature decreases with altitude
92.
Track from departure to destination is 055° ; Distance 1000 Nm. TAS 320 kts ; Red TAS 300 kts ; W/V up to PET 240/40 and beyond PET 090/50. Safe Fuel on departure 10 t ; Fuel flow 2t/hr ; The distance to PET from the departure point is
a) 497 nm
b) 468 nm
c) 502 nm
d) 531 nm
93.
Doppler VOR reduces the following error of CVOR:-
a) Phase Calculation Error
b) None of the above.
c) Site-error
d) Reference signal alignment error
94.
An aircraft is homing to a VOR on radial 274. Drift = 10° S. Variation at the VOR station = 5°W and at the aircraft DR position is 3°W. Hdg to maintain =
a) 079 (M)
b) 084 (M)
c) 082 (M)
d) 088 (M)
95.
In the Northern hemisphere, apparent drift of a Horizontal axis gyro (spin axis aligned to the meridian) at 30° N is
a) 7.52° /hr and gyro readings of heading decrease
b) 7.52° /hr and gyro readings of heading increase
c) 13.02° /hr and gyro readings of heading decrease
d) 13.02° /hr and gyro readings of heading increase
96.
TAS = 400 Kts ; Indicated Temp = +12°C ; COAT =?
a) -8°C
b) -16°C
c) -4°C
d) +16°C
97.
With the static blocked in a descent, the
a) Altimeter over reads and mach meter under reads
b) ASI under reads and mach meter over reads
c) ASI and Mach meter over read
d) Altimeter over reads and mach meter under reads
98.
At the magnetic equator
a) Deviation is zero
b) The isogonal is an agonic line
c) Variation is zero
d) Dip is zero
99.
The CG limit of an aircraft are from 72 in to 77 in aft of the datum. If the mass is 3700 kg and CG position is 76.5 in aft of datum , what will be the new CG if 60 kg is removed from forward hold located 147 in forward of datum?
a) 77 in
b) 72.72 in
c) 80.18 in
d) 72 in
100.
Civil Twilight occurs between?
a) At sunrise and sunset when the sun is between 0°-6° below the horizon.
b) Sunrise and sunset.
c) The times when the sun is between 6° and 12° below the horizon.
d) The times when the sun is between 12° and 18° below the horizon.
This is more feedback!
This is the feedback!
Data Base Login Information: Please make
sure that you enter your name before
submitting your results.
My Name
*Enter your name here
Back to Top
