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OP PROC-BNC-THEORY-MODULE1
1.
A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude:
a) 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m)
b) 12000 ft (approx. 3600 m)
c) 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m)
d) 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m)
2.
If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:
a) curve of some type or other.
b) spherical flight segment.
c) rhumb line.
d) great circle.
3.
When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone a vector which is equal to:
a) mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone.
b) wind at K'.
c) wind at K.
d) mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.
4.
When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:
a) take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan.
b) take any Mach number.
c) take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline.
d) maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance.
5.
MNPS is the abbreviation for:
a) Military Network Performance Structure.
b) Minimum Navigation Positioning System.
c) Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.
d) Maximum North-Atlantic Precision System.
6.
In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
a) ground speed.
b) indicated airspeed.
c) true airspeed.
d) Mach number.
7.
In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
a) request authorisation from Control to track another aircraft.
b) set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.
c) immediately climb or descend 1 000 ft.
d) notify Air Traffic Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.
8.
A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight can be planned:
a) outside scheduled flight times.
b) at a Mach number of 0.70 or less.
c) at FL 290.
d) at FL 280 or less.
9.
For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
a) Three Inertial Navigation System (INS).
b) Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).
c) One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).
d) Two independent Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).
10.
In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:
a) The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
b) The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
c) The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
d) The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence.
11.
Who shall be satisfied, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
a) The flight engineer.
b) The operator.
c) The commander.
d) The airline's dispatcher.
12.
For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
a) one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.
b) one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
c) two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.
d) two hours of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
13.
A commander shall not take-off for an IFR flight unless information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are:
a) during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, at or above the planning minima.
b) At the estimated time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
c) At the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
d) At the estimated time of arrival, at or above the planning minima.
14.
An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:
a) 120 minutes at cruising speed.
b) 60 minutes at cruising speed.
c) 90 minutes at cruising speed.
d) 30 minutes at cruising speed.
15.
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:
a) 27° North to 90° North.
b) 30° North to 70° North.
c) 30° North to 90° North.
d) 27° North to 70° North.
16.
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
a) 280 and 390.
b) 280 and 400.
c) 285 and 420.
d) 275 and 400.
17.
In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
a) 123.45 MHz.
b) 121.800 MHz.
c) 118.800 MHz.
d) 128.800 MHz.
18.
In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must:
a) return to the flight plan route if it is different from the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledged.
b) continue the flight in compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledged.
c) join one of the so-called "special" routes.
d) change the flight level in accordance with predetermined instructions.
19.
A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:
a) a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.
b) a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.
c) no decision height.
d) a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.
20.
What is the transponder code to be used by the commander of an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) ?:
a) A 7800
b) A 7700
c) A 7500
d) A 7600
21.
The validity period of a nigh-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally at 30°W, between:
a) 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
b) 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
c) 11H30 UTC to 18H00 UTC
d) 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
22.
The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally, at 30°W, between:
a) 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
b) 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
c) 11H30 UTC to 18H00 UTC
d) 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
23.
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you will then normally be:
a) within the organised night-time flight track system.
b) outside of the validity period of the organised track system.
c) within the polar track system.
d) within the organised daytime flight track system.
24.
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; you will then normally be ;
a) within the polar track system
b) within the organised daytime track system
c) out of the validity period of organised flight track system
d) within the organised night-time track system
25.
The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least:
a) One Global Navigation Satellite System
b) One inertial navigation system.
c) Three inertial navigation systems.
d) Two inertial navigation systems.
26.
The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:
a) 5 minutes.
b) 10 minutes.
c) 20 minutes.
d) 15 minutes.
27.
The minimum lateral separation to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is:
a) 90 NM.
b) 120 NM.
c) 30 NM.
d) 60 NM.
28.
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal separation must not be below:
a) 10 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 20 minutes
29.
If all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if no instructions are received from the air traffic control, you must consider:
a) climbing or descending 500 feet
b) return to departure airport
c) descend below the MNPS space
d) land at the nearest airport
30.
Minimum time route is a route calculated for:
a) a given flight from departure to destination
b) a period of 24 hours
c) aircraft flying in MNPS airspace
d) a period of 12 hours
31.
The term decision height (DH) is used for:
a) a non precision approach.
b) an indirect approach.
c) a precision approach.
d) a conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuvre.
32.
A minimum time track is a:
a) great circle track
b) track determined according to wind conditions
c) spherical capable flight segment
d) rhumb line
33.
At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
a) 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1500 ft
b) 30 minutes at cruising speed
c) 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1500 ft
d) 45 minutes at cruising speed
34.
On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
a) 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
b) 2 hours with normal cruise consumption
c) 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
d) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
35.
For a twin engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, when the weather conditions require a take-off alternate to be selected, it shall be located, in still air conditions, within:
a) 1 hour of flight time at single engine cruising speed
b) 2 hours of flight time at single engine cruising speed
c) 2 hours of flight time at cruising speed
d) 1 hour of flight time at cruising speed
36.
When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
a) 2 hours of flight time at cruising speed
b) 1 hour of flight time at single engine cruising speed
c) 1 hour of flight time at cruising speed
d) 2 hours of flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed
37.
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
a) 550 m
b) 500 m
c) 350 m
d) 800 m
38.
A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
a) 50 m
b) 100 m
c) 250 m
d) 200 m
39.
A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
a) 150 m
b) 200 m
c) 75 m
d) 250 m
40.
With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS), you can read the following information: - Desired track (DTK) = 100° - Track (TK) = 120° You can conclude that the:
a) Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R)
b) Aircraft is converging towards its ideal course
c) Track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)
d) Aircraft is diverging from its ideal course
41.
During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC ; you will normally be:
a) within the polar track system.
b) in a night-time organised track system.
c) outside the validity period of the organised track system.
d) in a day-time organised track system.
42.
During a flight from Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC ; you will normally be:
a) in a polar track system
b) in a night-time organised track system
c) outside the validity period of the organised track system
d) in a day-time organised track system
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