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OP PROC-BNC-THEORY-MODULE2
1.
The abbreviation MNPS means:
a) Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification
b) Main Navigation Performance Specification
c) Maximum Navigation Performance Specification
d) Minimum Navigation Performance Specification
2.
The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:
a) 243 MHz.
b) 121.5 MHz.
c) 123.45 MHz.
d) 118.5 MHz.
3.
A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
a) Within 15 minutes after crossing the oceanic airspace boundary.
b) At or prior entering the oceanic airspace.
c) As soon as possible after entering the NAT region.
d) On ATC request only.
4.
If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by:
a) using the abbreviation "OTS" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.
b) inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10° of longitude.
c) inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message.
d) the abbreviation "NAT" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.
5.
In the event of a contingency which requires an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
a) If below FL410, climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
b) If above FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
c) If above FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
d) If below FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
6.
In the event of a contingency which requires an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
a) If at FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
b) If at FL410, climb 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
c) If at FL410, climb or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
d) If at FL410, descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
7.
In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
a) Descend below FL275.
b) Start its climb or descent while turning to acquire an offset by 60 NM from its assigned route or track.
c) Start its climb or descent while turning to acquire an offset by 90 NM from its assigned route or track.
d) Start its climb or descent while turning to acquire an offset by 30 NM from its assigned route or track.
8.
Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
a) 10° of longitude.
b) 15° of longitude.
c) 5° of longitude.
d) 20° of longitude.
9.
Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
a) 10° of longitude.
b) 5° of longitude.
c) 15° of longitude.
d) 20° of longitude.
10.
In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by:
a) 3 minutes or more.
b) 10 minutes or more.
c) 2 minutes or more.
d) 5 minutes or more.
11.
The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:
a) 90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.
b) 60 NM between all aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.
c) 60 NM between aircraft meeting minimum navigation performance specifications.
d) 90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
12.
Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in MNPS airspace?
a) 90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
b) 60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
c) 90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
d) 60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
13.
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?
a) Between FL275 and FL400 inclusive.
b) Between FL290 and FL410 inclusive.
c) Below FL290.
d) Between FL245 and FL410 inclusive.
14.
Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
a) Flying above 3000 ft above ground.
b) Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace.
c) Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace.
d) Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft above ground whichever is the higher.
15.
According to the JAR-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within:
a) 30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
b) 60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
c) 90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
d) 120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
16.
The climb or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft:
a) can be authorised under radar control if the pilot is in VHF contact with the controller
b) can be authorised only if the pilot is in communication with the conflicting aircraft pilot
c) is forbidden in all circumstances
d) can be authorised when the aircraft has two long range navigation systems
17.
When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of:
a) 1.15
b) 1.5
c) 1.3
d) 1.45
18.
In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
a) rhumb line
b) spherical flight segment
c) great circle line
d) straight map line
19.
Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The transport precession is equal to:
a) g/2.sin Lm
b) g.sin Lm
c) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
d) 15°/h.sin Lm
20.
Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The correct formula of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to:
a) g.sin Lm
b) 15°/h.sin Lm
c) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
d) g/2.sin Lm
21.
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the:
a) grid North
b) magnetic North
c) true North
d) compass North
22.
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:
a) grid North for any chart
b) true North for a given chart
c) true North for any chart
d) grid North for a given chart
23.
Astronomic precession is:
a) depending on the chart used
b) independent of the latitude
c) existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying
d) zero when the aircraft is on the ground
24.
Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The correct formula expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to:
a) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
b) 15°/h.sin Lm
c) g.sin Lm
d) g/2.sin Lm
25.
Astronomic precession:
a) is zero at the South pole
b) causes an apparent spin of heading gyro to the right in the southern hemisphere
c) is zero at the North pole
d) causes an apparent spin of heading gyro to the left in the southern hemisphere
26.
Astronomic precession:
a) is zero at the North pole
b) causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere
c) causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere
d) is zero at the South pole
27.
During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDA) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than:
a) 4 m (14 ft) above the aerodrome altitude
b) 2 m (7 ft) above the aerodrome altitude
c) 4 m (14 ft) below the aerodrome altitude
d) 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome altitude
28.
When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
a) to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength
b) not to change its trajectory
c) to climb
d) to descend
29.
A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than:
a) 38 micro tesla
b) 10 micro-tesla
c) 6 micro-tesla
d) 17 micro-tesla
30.
Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear ?
a) Vertical speed.
b) Groundspeed.
c) Indicated airspeed.
d) Pitch angle.
31.
Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace (except Shanwick Oceanic) and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew:
a) returns to base immediately
b) carries out a holding pattern
c) keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from that of the current flight plan
d) keeps flying in accordance with the current flight plan
32.
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North Atlantic is defined within:
a) flight levels 280 and 475 from 27° North to the pole
b) flight levels 285 and 420 from the 27° North to the pole
c) flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole
d) sea level and FL660 from 27° North to the pole
33.
Penetration into the NAT MNPS airspace is:
a) not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlled
b) subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not)
c) subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed
d) subject to a mandatory clearance
34.
During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
a) the outer marker (OM).
b) the middle marker.
c) the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
d) the FAF.
35.
The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to:
a) Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in this airspace
b) the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)
c) rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic Ocean Airspace)
d) rules issued by the bordering States (document 6530)
36.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operational Minima), an operator must ensure that system minima for "non-precision approach procedures", which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:
a) VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft
b) VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
c) ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft
d) NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
37.
In accordance with JAR-OPS1(Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III B approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
a) 100 m
b) 50 m
c) 75 m
d) 150 m
38.
An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) in MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (d, but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and:
a) climb or descend 500 ft
b) climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft
c) climb or descent 1 000 ft
d) climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
39.
An aircraft flying above FL 410 in North Atlantic (NAT) Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and:
a) climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ft
b) climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
c) climb or descent 500 ft
d) climb or descend 1 000 ft
40.
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft, if:
a) above FL 410
b) at FL410
c) at FL 430
d) below FL 410
41.
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if:
a) below FL 410
b) at FL 430
c) above FL 410
d) at FL 410
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