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PERFORMANCE-BNC TOTAL THEORY-MODULE1
1.
In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is:
a) the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.
b) based on pressure altitudes.
c) the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.
d) the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle domain.
2.
At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by:
a) 5%
b) 7.50%
c) 2.50%
d) 10%
3.
Considering the take-off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct?
a) V1 may not be less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
b) If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
c) If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
d) V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
4.
What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
a) It will increase the take-off ground run.
b) It will decrease the take-off distance required.
c) It will increase the take-off distance required.
d) It will increase the accelerate stop distance.
5.
What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
a) It will increase the take-off distance.
b) It will decrease the take-off distance.
c) It will decrease the take-off run.
d) It will increase the take-off distance available.
6.
The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1 Gear up 2 Gear down 3 Wing flaps retracted 4 Wing flaps in take-off position 5 N engines at the take-off thrust 6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust 7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS 9 Speed over the path equal to V2 10 At a height of 35 ft above the runway The correct statements are:
a) 2, 3, 6, 9
b) 1, 5, 8, 10
c) 1, 4, 5, 10
d) 1, 4, 6, 9
7.
Minimum control speed on the ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by:
a) primary aerodynamic control and nose wheel steering.
b) nose wheel steering only.
c) primary aerodynamic control, nose wheel steering and differential braking.
d) primary aerodynamic control only.
8.
The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
a) one engine inoperative only.
b) failure of the critical engine only.
c) all engines operating only.
d) failure of the critical engine or all engines operating whichever requirement gives the greater distance.
9.
Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1, but VR remains unchanged?
a) Accelerate Stop Distance
b) Take-off run
c) All Engine Take-off distance
d) Take-off distance
10.
Which of the following answers is true?
a) V1 is higher VLOF
b) V1 is higher VR
c) V1 is lower or equal to VR
d) V1 is lower VMCG
11.
The length of a clearway may be included in:
a) the accelerate-stop distance available.
b) the take-off distance available.
c) the distance to reach V1.
d) the take-off run available.
12.
How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting?
a) Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.
b) An uphill slope increases the allowable take-off mass.
c) A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.
d) A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
13.
The following parameters affect the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass 2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density 4 decreasing density 5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting 7 increasing pressure altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitude Which parameters will decrease the take off ground run?
a) 2, 4, 5 and 7
b) 1, 3, 5 and 8
c) 1, 4, 6 and 8
d) 2, 3, 6 and 7
14.
What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
a) Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
b) Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
c) Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
d) Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
15.
How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?
a) VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
b) VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
c) VMCA decreases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.
d) VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.
16.
Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?
a) the obstacle limited take-off mass.
b) the climb limited take-off mass.
c) the take-off run.
d) the field limited take-off mass.
17.
Considering VR, which statement is correct?
a) VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
b) VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.
c) VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.
d) In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.
18.
Which statement is correct?
a) VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.
b) VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.
c) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.
d) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.
19.
Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
a) VR
b) VMCG
c) VLOF
d) VMU
20.
Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
a) VR
b) VMCA
c) VREF
d) V2
21.
In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
a) deploy airbrakes or spoilers.
b) apply wheel brakes.
c) reduce the engine thrust.
d) reverse engine thrust.
22.
If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?
a) It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance.
b) The accelerate stop distance increases.
c) Take-off with anti-skid inoperative is never permitted.
d) The accelerate stop distance decreases.
23.
In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
a) In the all-engine take-off distance.
b) In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
c) In the accelerate stop distance available.
d) In the take-off run available.
24.
Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
a) Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft pressure altitude.
b) Allowable take-off mass increases.
c) Allowable take-off mass decreases.
d) There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.
25.
If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:
a) increase in the flaps extended case.
b) not be affected.
c) increase.
d) decrease.
26.
Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
a) Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
b) Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.
c) High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
d) Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.
27.
The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for:
a) the failure of any engine on a multi-engine aeroplane.
b) 2 engine aeroplane.
c) the failure of two engines on a multi-engine aeroplane.
d) the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.
28.
At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?
a) When gear retraction is completed.
b) 1500 ft above field elevation.
c) 400 ft above field elevation.
d) 35 ft above ground.
29.
A head wind will:
a) shorten the time of climb.
b) increase the angle of climb.
c) increase the climb flight path angle.
d) increase the rate of climb.
30.
Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb?
a) Weight, drag and thrust.
b) Weight and thrust only.
c) Thrust and drag only.
d) Weight and drag only.
31.
How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
a) Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.
b) Both decrease.
c) Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
d) Both increase.
32.
An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least:
a) 90m + 0.125D
b) 0.125D
c) 90m + D/0.125
d) 90m + 1.125D
33.
What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
a) The time to climb increases.
b) The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type.
c) The time to climb decreases.
d) The time to climb does not change.
34.
The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
a) Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.
b) Larger.
c) Not change.
d) Smaller.
35.
Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:
a) lower than that for clean configuration.
b) changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.
c) higher than that for clean configuration.
d) same as that for clean configuration.
36.
Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
a) Both will decrease.
b) Both will remain the same.
c) Vx will decrease and Vy will increase.
d) Both will increase.
37.
How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere (under ISA conditions) ?
a) TAS is not related to Mach Number.
b) TAS increases.
c) TAS decreases.
d) TAS is constant.
38.
The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
a) is always equal to the powerplant ceiling.
b) is independent of the aeroplane mass.
c) increases when the aeroplane mass decreases.
d) is only dependent on the outside air temperature.
39.
Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant,
a) both will increase with increasing altitude.
b) TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will decrease with increased altitude.
c) both will stay constant regardless of altitude.
d) both will decrease with increasing altitude.
40.
How does the specific range change when the altitude increases for jet aeroplane flying with the speed for maximum range?
a) Decreases.
b) First increases than decreases.
c) Increases only if there is no wind.
d) Does not change.
41.
Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
a) a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.
b) an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.
c) a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a higher cruise speed.
d) a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed.
42.
A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:
a) the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift / drag ratio.
b) the speed at the maximum lift.
c) the long range speed.
d) the speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift / drag)^3/2.
43.
With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
a) equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance
b) equal to the angle of attack corresponding to zero induced drag.
c) equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum lift to drag ratio.
d) lower than the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance
44.
The correct formula is: (Remark: "less than=" means "equal to or lower")
a) 1.05 VMCGless than VEFless than= VR
b) 1.05 VMCAless than= VEFless than= V1
c) VMCGless than=VEF less than V1
d) V2minless than= VEFless than= VMU
45.
Given: VS= Stalling speed VMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure) V1= take-off decision speed VR= Rotation speed V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed VLOF: Lift-off speed The correct formula is:
a) V2minless than VMCAgreater than VMU
b) VSless than VMCAless than V2 min
c) VMUless than= VMCAless than V1
d) VRless than VMCAless than VLOF
46.
Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
a) is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).
b) is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.
c) is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.
d) is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off .
47.
The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:
a) 1.13 VSR for two- and three-engine turbo-propeller and turbojet aeroplanes.
b) 1.15 VSR for all turbojet and turbo-propeller aeroplanes.
c) 1.20 VSR for all turbo-propeller aeroplanes.
d) 1.20 VSR for all aeroplanes.
48.
The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
a) smaller.
b) equal.
c) larger.
d) depends on type of aircraft and may be smaller or larger respectively.
49.
Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
a) maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle.
b) maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.
c) maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range.
d) holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.
50.
The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the:
a) aircraft mass decreases.
b) glide angle increases.
c) IAS increases.
d) TAS decreases.
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