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PERFORMANCE-BNC TOTAL THEORY-MODULE3
1.
The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
a) V1 in kt ground speed.
b) V1 in kt TAS.
c) VLOF in terms of ground speed.
d) VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.
2.
For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?
a) An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.
b) The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point.
c) In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the required landing field length.
d) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.
3.
Which statement is correct?
a) The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used.
b) The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases.
c) The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature
d) The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of: field length limited take-off mass climb limited take-off mass obstacle limited take-off mass.
4.
Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph?
a) Theoretical ceiling.
b) Economy.
c) Service ceiling.
d) Aerodynamics.
5.
Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?
a) The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various masses and altitudes.
b) The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes.
c) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes.
d) The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings.
6.
Why should the temperature of the wheel brakes be checked prior to take off?"
a) To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.
b) Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.
c) To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
d) To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.
7.
Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
a) VMCG, V1, VR, V2.
b) V1, VR, VMCG, V2.
c) V1, VMCG, VR, V2.
d) V1, VR, V2, VMCA.
8.
A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
a) The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.
b) The Maximum operating Mach number.
c) The Stalling speed.
d) The Minimum control speed air.
9.
A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which speed limit will be exceeded?
a) Maximum Operational Mach Number
b) Maximum Operating Speed
c) High Speed Buffet Limit
d) Never Exceed Speed
10.
Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
a) Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.
b) In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.
c) Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field length limited take-off mass.
d) Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.
11.
Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
a) The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.
b) On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited.
c) 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass.
d) The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
12.
Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
a) The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°.
b) Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass.
c) The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass.
d) A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition.
13.
Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
a) The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.
b) V1 must not exceed VMCG.
c) When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines.
d) V1 must not exceed VR.
14.
When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:
a) the "balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the "all engine take-off distance".
b) the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1.
c) the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point.
d) the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass.
15.
For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?
a) The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.
b) The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.
c) A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available.
d) Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.
16.
To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
a) use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.
b) use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.
c) postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.
d) make a "positive" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible.
17.
What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ?
a) A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure.
b) A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.
c) A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between "net" and "gross" take-off flight paths.
d) For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available runway length.
18.
The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:
a) accelerate-stop distance available.
b) take-off distance available.
c) take-off run available.
d) landing distance available.
19.
VR cannot be lower than:
a) 105% of V1 and VMCA.
b) 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.
c) 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines.
d) V1 and 105% of VMCA.
20.
The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is:
a) an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited take-off mass.
b) a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass.
c) an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass.
d) a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited take-off mass.
21.
When the outside air temperature increases beyond the flat rated temperature of the engines, the:
a) field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass decreases.
b) field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases.
c) field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass increases.
d) field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass decreases.
22.
The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
a) the point where V2 is reached.
b) the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.
c) the lift-off point.
d) the point half way between V1 and V2.
23.
The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed:
a) below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which take-off must be continued.
b) at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.
c) below which the take-off must be continued.
d) at which the take-off must be rejected.
24.
With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct? (no compressibility effects)
a) The minimum drag is independent of the aircraft mass.
b) The minimum drag is a function of the pressure altitude.
c) The minimum drag is a function of the density altitude.
d) The minimum drag is proportional to the aircraft mass.
25.
If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
a) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
b) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
c) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
d) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
26.
The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:
a) maximum specific range.
b) maximum endurance.
c) minimum power.
d) critical angle of attack.
27.
For a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
a) that corresponding to the point of the minimum power required the Drag versus TAS curve.
b) that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve.
c) that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Power required versus TAS curve.
d) that corresponding to the point of the minimum drag at the Drag versus TAS curve.
28.
Which cruise system gives minimum fuel consumption during cruise between top of climb and top of descent? (still air, no turbulence)?
a) Maximum range.
b) Long range.
c) Holding.
d) Maximum endurance.
29.
A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) IAS increases and TAS decreases.
b) IAS decreases and TAS increases.
c) IAS decreases and TAS decreases.
d) IAS increases and TAS increases.
30.
With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
a) the critical Mach number.
b) the minimum angle of descent.
c) the maximum lift.
d) the minimum power required.
31.
For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
a) that which gives the maximum value of lift
b) that which gives the minimum value of drag.
c) that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio.
d) 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.
32.
A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed
a) for long-range cruise.
b) giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.
c) giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio.
d) of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.
33.
Density altitude is the
a) altitude reference to the standard datum plane
b) altitude read directly from the altimeter
c) pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature
d) height above the surface
34.
The Density Altitude
a) is equal to the pressure altitude.
b) is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.
c) is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.
d) is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
35.
Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ?
a) High temperature and high relative humidity
b) Low temperature and low relative humidity
c) Low temperature and high relative humidity
d) High temperature and low relative humidity
36.
What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope
a) increases the IAS for take-off.
b) has no effect on the take-off speed V1.
c) decreases the TAS for take-off.
d) decreases the take-off speed V1.
37.
During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component
a) decreases the climb time.
b) increases the amount of fuel for the climb.
c) decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.
d) increases the climb time.
38.
What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
a) Tailwind only effects holding speed.
b) The IAS will be decreased.
c) The IAS will be increased.
d) No affect
39.
During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called:
a) Maximum transfer ceiling
b) Service ceiling
c) Thrust ceiling
d) Absolute ceiling
40.
The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
a) 100 ft/min
b) 500 ft/min
c) 0 ft/min
d) 125 ft/min
41.
How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take-off run, assuming unstalled flow conditions at the propeller blades? The thrust
a) increases while the aeroplane speed builds up.
b) varies with mass changes only.
c) decreases while the aeroplane speed builds up.
d) has no change during take-off and climb.
42.
A twin engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed with take-off thrust on both engines. The critical engine suddenly fails. After stabilising the engine failure transient which parameter(s) must be maintainable?
a) Straight flight and altitude
b) Straight flight
c) Altitude
d) Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
43.
The speed V2 is
a) that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure.
b) the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
c) the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.
d) the take-off safety speed.
44.
Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway ?
a) V2
b) VMCA
c) VMCG
d) V1
45.
What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant ?
a) The ROC and the ROC speed are independent of the mass.
b) The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.
c) The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed.
d) The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.
46.
The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
a) Higher
b) Depending on density altitude and mass.
c) Depending on the OAT and net mass.
d) Lower
47.
Approaching in turbulent wind conditions during manual flight requires
a) an increase in approach speed
b) an increase in VREF
c) a steeper approach path
d) no change
48.
An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to:
a) 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air, at the normal cruising speed.
b) 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.
c) 180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with one engine inoperative.
d) 180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport in still air, with one engine inoperative.
49.
ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of
a) 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
b) 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
c) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
d) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
50.
Field length is balanced when
a) calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1.
b) take-off distance available equals accelerate stop distance available.
c) one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.
d) all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.
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