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PERFORMANCE-BNC TOTAL THEORY-MODULE5
1.
The take-off run is
a) 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative.
b) 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
c) the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
d) the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
2.
Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available ?
a) No.
b) Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.
c) No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway.
d) Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.
3.
May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?
a) Only for landing.
b) No.
c) Yes.
d) Only for take-off.
4.
In case of an engine failure recognized below V1
a) the take-off must be rejected.
b) the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1.
c) the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available.
d) the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.
5.
In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1
a) the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF.
b) the take-off must be continued.
c) a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.
d) the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.
6.
The take-off distance available is
a) the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.
b) the runway length plus half of the clearway.
c) the runway length minus stopway.
d) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
7.
The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is
a) a higher V1.
b) a longer take-off run.
c) a shorter ground roll.
d) an increased acceleration.
8.
Reduced take-off thrust
a) can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.
b) has the benefit of improving engine life.
c) can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass.
d) is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
9.
How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ?
a) Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.
b) Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.
c) Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.
d) Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.
10.
A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature
a) decreases the field length limited take-off mass.
b) has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.
c) decreases the take-off distance.
d) increases the climb limited take-off mass.
11.
A higher outside air temperature (OAT)
a) increases the climb limited take-off mass.
b) decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass.
c) increases the field length limited take-off mass.
d) decreases the take-off distance.
12.
The take-off distance required increases
a) due to slush on the runway.
b) due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
c) due to lower gross mass at take-off.
d) due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
13.
Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
a) unaffected.
b) lower.
c) higher.
d) only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.
14.
On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased
a) by low outside air temperature.
b) by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.
c) by uphill slope.
d) by headwind.
15.
Uphill slope
a) decreases the accelerate stop distance only.
b) increases the allowed take-off mass.
c) increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.
d) decreases the take-off distance only.
16.
A balanced V1 is obtained when:
a) a clearway is used to obtain the highest runway length limited take off mass.
b) it is equal to V2.
c) the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.
d) a stopway is used to obtain the highest runway length limited take off mass.
17.
A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
a) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
b) The clearway does not equal the stopway.
c) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.
d) The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
18.
V2 has to be equal to or higher than
a) 1.15 VMCG.
b) 1.1 VSO.
c) 1.1 VMCA.
d) 1.15 VR.
19.
V1 has to be
a) equal to or higher than VMCG.
b) equal to or higher than V2.
c) higher than VR.
d) equal to or higher than VMCA.
20.
The speed VR
a) is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.
b) must be higher than V2.
c) must be higher than VLOF.
d) must be equal to or lower than V1.
21.
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would
a) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
b) decrease the required take-off distance.
c) increase the maximum mass for take-off.
d) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
22.
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would
a) increase the required take-off distance.
b) increase the maximum mass for take-off.
c) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
d) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
23.
The first segment of the take-off flight path ends
a) at reaching V2.
b) at completion of gear retraction.
c) at 35 ft above the runway.
d) at completion of flap retraction.
24.
The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by
a) selecting a lower VR.
b) selecting a lower V1.
c) a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.
d) selecting a lower V2.
25.
In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed
a) 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
b) 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
c) 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft.
d) 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
26.
You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ?
a) During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero.
b) The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb.
c) The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS.
d) No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature TAS=460 kt)
27.
If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be
a) higher.
b) lower.
c) only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.
d) unchanged.
28.
The optimum cruise altitude is
a) the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved.
b) the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.
c) the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained.
d) the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum.
29.
The optimum cruise altitude increases
a) if the temperature (OAT) is increased.
b) if the aeroplane mass is decreased.
c) if the aeroplane mass is increased.
d) if the tailwind component is decreased.
30.
Below the optimum cruise altitude
a) the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
b) the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
c) the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
d) the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude.
31.
Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
a) If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.
b) If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected.
c) If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.
d) If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).
32.
After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
a) Long Range Cruise Descent.
b) Drift Down Procedure.
c) ETOPS.
d) Emergency Descent Procedure.
33.
'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied
a) to conduct a visual approach with one engine out.
b) to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate.
c) after cabin depressurization.
d) after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude.
34.
If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedure
a) fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached.
b) the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration.
c) the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the stall speed plus 10 kt.
d) fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down.
35.
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
a) The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.
b) The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.
c) The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.
d) The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.
36.
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
a) A tailwind component decreases the ground distance.
b) A headwind component increases the ground distance.
c) A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.
d) A tailwind component increases the ground distance.
37.
The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
a) the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.
b) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration.
c) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration.
d) the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.
38.
The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 43%
b) 92%
c) 70%
d) 67%
39.
The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 70%
b) 43%
c) 67%
d) 92%
40.
On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
a) The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.
b) The specific range and the optimum altitude increases.
c) The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.
d) The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.
41.
With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is (assume altitude remains constant)
a) first improved and later reduced.
b) not affected.
c) reduced.
d) improved.
42.
In unaccelerated climb
a) thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.
b) thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.
c) lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.
d) lift is greater than the gross weight.
43.
What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)
a) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100
b) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100
c) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100
d) Climb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100
44.
The rate of climb
a) is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.
b) is angle of climb times true airspeed.
c) is the downhill component of the true airspeed.
d) is the horizontal component of the true airspeed.
45.
If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
a) the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.
b) the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.
c) the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.
d) the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
46.
Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting,
a) decreases rate of climb and increases angle of climb.
b) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.
c) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.
d) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.
47.
As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb
a) VY is always above VMO.
b) VX may be greater or less than VY depending on altitude
c) VX is always above VY.
d) VX is always below VY.
48.
The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass
a) decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density.
b) increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.
c) increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density.
d) is independent of altitude.
49.
The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of
a) true airspeed to rate of climb.
b) the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
c) rate of climb to true airspeed.
d) the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.
50.
Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereas
a) VX is increased and VY is decreased.
b) VY and VX are increased.
c) VY and VX are decreased.
d) VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass.
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