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PERFORMANCE-BNC TOTAL THEORY-MODULE6
1.
A higher outside air temperature
a) increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.
b) reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.
c) does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.
d) reduces the angle and the rate of climb.
2.
A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant)
a) decreases angle and rate of climb.
b) does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.
c) has no effect on rate of climb.
d) improves angle and rate of climb.
3.
A constant headwind
a) increases the rate of descent.
b) increases the descent distance over ground.
c) increases the angle of the descent flight path.
d) increases the angle of descent.
4.
When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component:
a) increases the maximum endurance.
b) decreases the angle of climb.
c) increases the angle of flight path during climb.
d) increases the best rate of climb.
5.
The speed V1 is defined as
a) take-off decision speed.
b) take-off climb speed.
c) engine failure speed.
d) speed for best angle of climb.
6.
The speed VSR is defined as
a) as reference stall speed and may not be less than 1-g stall speed.
b) design stress speed.
c) safe rotation speed for take-off .
d) speed for best specific range.
7.
The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as
a) critical engine failure speed.
b) take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.
c) lift off speed.
d) take-off decision speed.
8.
The speed VLO is defined as
a) landing gear operating speed.
b) design low operating speed.
c) lift off speed.
d) long distance operating speed.
9.
VX is
a) the speed for best rate of climb.
b) the speed for best angle of flight path.
c) the speed for best specific range.
d) the speed for best angle of climb.
10.
The speed for best rate of climb is called
a) V2.
b) VX.
c) VY.
d) VO.
11.
The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as
a) VS.
b) VMC.
c) VSO.
d) VS1.
12.
The absolute ceiling
a) is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%
b) is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.
c) can be reached only with minimum steady flight speed
d) is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.
13.
The aerodynamic ceiling
a) is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min.
b) is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed buffet are the same.
c) depends upon thrust setting and increase with increasing thrust.
d) is the altitude at which the best rate of climb theoretically is zero.
14.
The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
a) is dependent on the OAT.
b) is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.
c) is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.
d) is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation.
15.
Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?
a) Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes; they are used for piston engine aeroplanes only.
b) To respect ATC flight level constraints.
c) To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces.
d) Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more tailwind can be expected.
16.
The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
a) climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude.
b) weight during landing at the alternate.
c) obstacle clearance after engine failure.
d) engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs.
17.
The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
a) manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative.
b) obstacle clearance in the approach area.
c) minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
d) manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.
18.
Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
a) A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties
b) Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance.
c) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used
d) The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maintain the same safety margins as for a dry runway
19.
Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is correct?
a) Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx
b) Vs, Maximum range speed, Vx
c) Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed
d) Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum range speed
20.
Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind)
a) Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds of the heavier aeroplane will be larger.
b) Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.
c) No difference.
d) Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.
21.
When determining the maximum landing mass of an turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway)
a) 60/115
b) 0.6
c) 115/100
d) 1.67
22.
Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct?
a) The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the maximum zero fuel mass.
b) The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel.
c) The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity.
d) The traffic load can be limited by the desired range.
23.
In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on:
a) altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board.
b) speed and mass.
c) speed, mass and fuel on board.
d) altitude, speed and mass.
24.
Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
a) The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum.
b) V2.
c) V2 + 10 kt.
d) The speed for maximum rate of climb.
25.
Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct?
a) An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive from an economy point of view.
b) An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest specific range.
c) An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC normally does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude.
d) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet can occur.
26.
Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment ?
a) There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration height.
b) The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft.
c) The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines operating.
d) The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied.
27.
Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down-slope...
a) reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).
b) increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
c) reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
d) increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).
28.
If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance calculations may allow
a) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1
b) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1
c) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1
d) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1
29.
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
a) The effect would vary depending upon the height of any obstacle within the net take-off flight path.
b) The climb limited take-off mass would increase.
c) The climb limited take-off mass would decrease.
d) None.
30.
Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
a) A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.
b) There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of the net flight path.
c) The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.
d) The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.
31.
According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
a) Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the landing distance required.
b) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available landing runway length should be taken into account.
c) Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length.
d) The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full stop.
32.
Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct?
a) An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating.
b) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude.
c) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
d) When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken into account.
33.
In accordance with JAR 25 the take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may not be less than:
a) VSR
b) 1.08 VSR
c) 1.2 VSR
d) 1.13 VSR
34.
The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
a) 1.3 Vs
b) 1.15 Vs1
c) 1.2 Vs
d) 1.15 Vs
35.
Which statement regarding V1 is correct ?
a) V1 may not be higher than Vmcg
b) The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative
c) When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric engines
d) VR may not be lower than V1
36.
Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct ?
a) Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited by the 1.3g buffet onset requirements.
b) A step climb can only be performed when the altitude exceeds the one engine out service ceiling.
c) In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the aircraft has exceeded the optimum altitude.
d) A step climb provides better economy than a optimum cruise.
37.
Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected: - runway limit: 5 270 kg - obstacle limit: 4 630 kg Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg. Considering a take-off with flaps at:
a) 20°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases
b) 5°, both limitations are increased
c) 20°, both limitations are increased
d) 5°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases
38.
A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow. The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions. The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway:
a) increased
b) reduced
c) substantially decreased
d) unchanged
39.
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:
a) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
b) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
c) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
d) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
40.
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance:
a) a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance
b) a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance
c) an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance
d) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
41.
A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
a) an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
b) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
c) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
d) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
42.
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
a) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
b) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
c) an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
d) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
43.
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
a) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
b) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
c) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
d) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
44.
The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
a) Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted
b) Degraded
c) Improved
d) Unchanged
45.
A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
a) increased
b) very significantly decreased
c) decreased
d) unchanged
46.
The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in:
a) same speed and an increase of the fuel-burn per hour and fuel-burn/distance.
b) an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance.
c) an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour.
d) same speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an increase in the fuel-burn per hour.
47.
If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway; the landing distance must be increased by:
a) 20%
b) 15%
c) 5%
d) 10%
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