This page requires a JavaScript-enabled browser
Instructions on how to enable your browser are contained in the help file.
PERFORMANCE-BNC TOTAL THEORY-MODULE1
1.
At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by:
a) 2.50%
b) 5%
c) 7.50%
d) 10%
2.
The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
a) failure of the critical engine or all engines operating whichever requirement gives the greater distance.
b) all engines operating only.
c) one engine inoperative only.
d) failure of the critical engine only.
3.
Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
a) maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle.
b) maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.
c) maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range.
d) holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.
4.
How does the specific range change when the altitude increases for jet aeroplane flying with the speed for maximum range?
a) First increases than decreases.
b) Does not change.
c) Increases only if there is no wind.
d) Decreases.
5.
Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
a) Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.
b) High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
c) Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.
d) Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
6.
Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
a) VR
b) VREF
c) VMCA
d) V2
7.
With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
a) lower than the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance
b) equal to the angle of attack corresponding to zero induced drag.
c) equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance
d) equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum lift to drag ratio.
8.
Which statement is correct?
a) VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.
b) VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.
c) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.
d) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.
9.
Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
a) is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).
b) is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.
c) is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off .
d) is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.
10.
In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is:
a) the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.
b) the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.
c) based on pressure altitudes.
d) the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle domain.
11.
Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:
a) higher than that for clean configuration.
b) changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.
c) same as that for clean configuration.
d) lower than that for clean configuration.
12.
The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
a) Larger.
b) Smaller.
c) Not change.
d) Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.
13.
If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?
a) The accelerate stop distance decreases.
b) The accelerate stop distance increases.
c) Take-off with anti-skid inoperative is never permitted.
d) It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance.
14.
In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
a) reduce the engine thrust.
b) reverse engine thrust.
c) deploy airbrakes or spoilers.
d) apply wheel brakes.
15.
Which of the following answers is true?
a) V1 is higher VR
b) V1 is higher VLOF
c) V1 is lower or equal to VR
d) V1 is lower VMCG
16.
A head wind will:
a) increase the climb flight path angle.
b) increase the rate of climb.
c) increase the angle of climb.
d) shorten the time of climb.
17.
The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
a) increases when the aeroplane mass decreases.
b) is only dependent on the outside air temperature.
c) is independent of the aeroplane mass.
d) is always equal to the powerplant ceiling.
18.
Given: VS= Stalling speed VMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure) V1= take-off decision speed VR= Rotation speed V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed VLOF: Lift-off speed The correct formula is:
a) V2minless than VMCAgreater than VMU
b) VMUless than= VMCAless than V1
c) VRless than VMCAless than VLOF
d) VSless than VMCAless than V2 min
19.
Considering VR, which statement is correct?
a) VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.
b) In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.
c) VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
d) VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.
20.
A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:
a) the long range speed.
b) the speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift / drag)^3/2.
c) the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift / drag ratio.
d) the speed at the maximum lift.
21.
What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
a) It will increase the take-off ground run.
b) It will increase the accelerate stop distance.
c) It will increase the take-off distance required.
d) It will decrease the take-off distance required.
22.
The length of a clearway may be included in:
a) the accelerate-stop distance available.
b) the distance to reach V1.
c) the take-off distance available.
d) the take-off run available.
23.
In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
a) In the all-engine take-off distance.
b) In the accelerate stop distance available.
c) In the take-off run available.
d) In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
24.
How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?
a) VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
b) VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
c) VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.
d) VMCA decreases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.
25.
Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1, but VR remains unchanged?
a) Accelerate Stop Distance
b) All Engine Take-off distance
c) Take-off run
d) Take-off distance
26.
The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1 Gear up 2 Gear down 3 Wing flaps retracted 4 Wing flaps in take-off position 5 N engines at the take-off thrust 6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust 7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS 9 Speed over the path equal to V2 10 At a height of 35 ft above the runway The correct statements are:
a) 1, 4, 5, 10
b) 1, 5, 8, 10
c) 1, 4, 6, 9
d) 2, 3, 6, 9
27.
What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
a) It will increase the take-off distance.
b) It will increase the take-off distance available.
c) It will decrease the take-off distance.
d) It will decrease the take-off run.
28.
Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant,
a) both will increase with increasing altitude.
b) both will stay constant regardless of altitude.
c) TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will decrease with increased altitude.
d) both will decrease with increasing altitude.
29.
Minimum control speed on the ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by:
a) nose wheel steering only.
b) primary aerodynamic control only.
c) primary aerodynamic control and nose wheel steering.
d) primary aerodynamic control, nose wheel steering and differential braking.
30.
If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:
a) increase in the flaps extended case.
b) increase.
c) decrease.
d) not be affected.
31.
The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
a) smaller.
b) equal.
c) larger.
d) depends on type of aircraft and may be smaller or larger respectively.
32.
An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least:
a) 0.125D
b) 90m + 0.125D
c) 90m + D/0.125
d) 90m + 1.125D
33.
What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
a) Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
b) Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
c) Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
d) Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
34.
Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
a) Both will remain the same.
b) Both will decrease.
c) Both will increase.
d) Vx will decrease and Vy will increase.
35.
How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere (under ISA conditions) ?
a) TAS is constant.
b) TAS increases.
c) TAS decreases.
d) TAS is not related to Mach Number.
36.
The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for:
a) the failure of two engines on a multi-engine aeroplane.
b) the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.
c) 2 engine aeroplane.
d) the failure of any engine on a multi-engine aeroplane.
37.
The following parameters affect the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass 2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density 4 decreasing density 5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting 7 increasing pressure altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitude Which parameters will decrease the take off ground run?
a) 2, 4, 5 and 7
b) 1, 4, 6 and 8
c) 2, 3, 6 and 7
d) 1, 3, 5 and 8
38.
Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
a) VMCG
b) VMU
c) VR
d) VLOF
39.
At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?
a) 400 ft above field elevation.
b) 35 ft above ground.
c) When gear retraction is completed.
d) 1500 ft above field elevation.
40.
Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
a) Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft pressure altitude.
b) There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.
c) Allowable take-off mass decreases.
d) Allowable take-off mass increases.
41.
How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting?
a) A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.
b) Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.
c) An uphill slope increases the allowable take-off mass.
d) A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
42.
Considering the take-off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct?
a) If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
b) If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
c) V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
d) V1 may not be less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
43.
Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb?
a) Weight and drag only.
b) Weight, drag and thrust.
c) Thrust and drag only.
d) Weight and thrust only.
44.
Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?
a) the obstacle limited take-off mass.
b) the field limited take-off mass.
c) the take-off run.
d) the climb limited take-off mass.
45.
The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:
a) 1.20 VSR for all turbo-propeller aeroplanes.
b) 1.13 VSR for two- and three-engine turbo-propeller and turbojet aeroplanes.
c) 1.15 VSR for all turbojet and turbo-propeller aeroplanes.
d) 1.20 VSR for all aeroplanes.
46.
The correct formula is: (Remark: "less than=" means "equal to or lower")
a) 1.05 VMCAless than= VEFless than= V1
b) 1.05 VMCGless than VEFless than= VR
c) V2minless than= VEFless than= VMU
d) VMCGless than=VEF less than V1
47.
The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the:
a) IAS increases.
b) TAS decreases.
c) aircraft mass decreases.
d) glide angle increases.
48.
How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
a) Both increase.
b) Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.
c) Both decrease.
d) Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
49.
What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
a) The time to climb increases.
b) The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type.
c) The time to climb does not change.
d) The time to climb decreases.
50.
Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
a) a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed.
b) an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.
c) a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.
d) a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a higher cruise speed.
This is more feedback!
This is the feedback!
Data Base Login Information: Please make
sure that you enter your name before
submitting your results.
My Name
*Enter your name here
Back to Top
