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PERFORMANCE-BNC TOTAL THEORY-MODULE3
1.
The speed V2 is
a) the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.
b) the take-off safety speed.
c) that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure.
d) the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
2.
With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct? (no compressibility effects)
a) The minimum drag is a function of the density altitude.
b) The minimum drag is independent of the aircraft mass.
c) The minimum drag is proportional to the aircraft mass.
d) The minimum drag is a function of the pressure altitude.
3.
The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
a) V1 in kt TAS.
b) V1 in kt ground speed.
c) VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.
d) VLOF in terms of ground speed.
4.
What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant ?
a) The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.
b) The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.
c) The ROC and the ROC speed are independent of the mass.
d) The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed.
5.
Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph?
a) Economy.
b) Theoretical ceiling.
c) Aerodynamics.
d) Service ceiling.
6.
A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
a) The Maximum operating Mach number.
b) The Minimum control speed air.
c) The Stalling speed.
d) The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.
7.
Which cruise system gives minimum fuel consumption during cruise between top of climb and top of descent? (still air, no turbulence)?
a) Maximum endurance.
b) Maximum range.
c) Holding.
d) Long range.
8.
During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component
a) decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.
b) increases the climb time.
c) increases the amount of fuel for the climb.
d) decreases the climb time.
9.
Why should the temperature of the wheel brakes be checked prior to take off?"
a) To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.
b) To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.
c) Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.
d) To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
10.
The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is:
a) an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited take-off mass.
b) an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass.
c) a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited take-off mass.
d) a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass.
11.
When the outside air temperature increases beyond the flat rated temperature of the engines, the:
a) field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass increases.
b) field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass decreases.
c) field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases.
d) field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass decreases.
12.
For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?
a) The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.
b) A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available.
c) The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.
d) Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.
13.
When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:
a) the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1.
b) the "balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the "all engine take-off distance".
c) the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass.
d) the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point.
14.
What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
a) The IAS will be increased.
b) Tailwind only effects holding speed.
c) The IAS will be decreased.
d) No affect
15.
Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ?
a) Low temperature and low relative humidity
b) Low temperature and high relative humidity
c) High temperature and low relative humidity
d) High temperature and high relative humidity
16.
Density altitude is the
a) altitude read directly from the altimeter
b) pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature
c) height above the surface
d) altitude reference to the standard datum plane
17.
Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
a) Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.
b) Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field length limited take-off mass.
c) Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.
d) In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.
18.
What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ?
a) A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure.
b) For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available runway length.
c) A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between "net" and "gross" take-off flight paths.
d) A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.
19.
What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope
a) increases the IAS for take-off.
b) decreases the take-off speed V1.
c) has no effect on the take-off speed V1.
d) decreases the TAS for take-off.
20.
The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
a) 100 ft/min
b) 0 ft/min
c) 125 ft/min
d) 500 ft/min
21.
For a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
a) that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve.
b) that corresponding to the point of the minimum power required the Drag versus TAS curve.
c) that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Power required versus TAS curve.
d) that corresponding to the point of the minimum drag at the Drag versus TAS curve.
22.
An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to:
a) 180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with one engine inoperative.
b) 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air, at the normal cruising speed.
c) 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.
d) 180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport in still air, with one engine inoperative.
23.
Which statement is correct?
a) The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature
b) The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of: field length limited take-off mass climb limited take-off mass obstacle limited take-off mass.
c) The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases.
d) The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used.
24.
The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed:
a) at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.
b) at which the take-off must be rejected.
c) below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which take-off must be continued.
d) below which the take-off must be continued.
25.
For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?
a) In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the required landing field length.
b) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.
c) The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point.
d) An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.
26.
Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?
a) The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes.
b) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes.
c) The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various masses and altitudes.
d) The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings.
27.
Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
a) The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass.
b) Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass.
c) A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition.
d) The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°.
28.
For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
a) that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio.
b) that which gives the minimum value of drag.
c) 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.
d) that which gives the maximum value of lift
29.
The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
a) Lower
b) Depending on density altitude and mass.
c) Higher
d) Depending on the OAT and net mass.
30.
How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take-off run, assuming unstalled flow conditions at the propeller blades? The thrust
a) decreases while the aeroplane speed builds up.
b) increases while the aeroplane speed builds up.
c) has no change during take-off and climb.
d) varies with mass changes only.
31.
Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway ?
a) VMCG
b) VMCA
c) V2
d) V1
32.
The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
a) the lift-off point.
b) the point where V2 is reached.
c) the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.
d) the point half way between V1 and V2.
33.
A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) IAS decreases and TAS increases.
b) IAS increases and TAS increases.
c) IAS decreases and TAS decreases.
d) IAS increases and TAS decreases.
34.
A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed
a) of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.
b) giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.
c) for long-range cruise.
d) giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio.
35.
With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
a) the critical Mach number.
b) the maximum lift.
c) the minimum angle of descent.
d) the minimum power required.
36.
The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:
a) maximum endurance.
b) minimum power.
c) critical angle of attack.
d) maximum specific range.
37.
To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
a) make a "positive" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible.
b) postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.
c) use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.
d) use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.
38.
Field length is balanced when
a) calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1.
b) one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.
c) take-off distance available equals accelerate stop distance available.
d) all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.
39.
VR cannot be lower than:
a) V1 and 105% of VMCA.
b) 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines.
c) 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.
d) 105% of V1 and VMCA.
40.
A twin engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed with take-off thrust on both engines. The critical engine suddenly fails. After stabilising the engine failure transient which parameter(s) must be maintainable?
a) Altitude
b) Straight flight and altitude
c) Straight flight
d) Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
41.
During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called:
a) Absolute ceiling
b) Maximum transfer ceiling
c) Thrust ceiling
d) Service ceiling
42.
Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
a) V1, VR, VMCG, V2.
b) V1, VMCG, VR, V2.
c) V1, VR, V2, VMCA.
d) VMCG, V1, VR, V2.
43.
Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
a) V1 must not exceed VR.
b) V1 must not exceed VMCG.
c) The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.
d) When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines.
44.
Approaching in turbulent wind conditions during manual flight requires
a) an increase in approach speed
b) an increase in VREF
c) a steeper approach path
d) no change
45.
Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
a) The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
b) On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited.
c) The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.
d) 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass.
46.
The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:
a) landing distance available.
b) take-off distance available.
c) take-off run available.
d) accelerate-stop distance available.
47.
If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
a) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
b) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
c) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
d) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
48.
A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which speed limit will be exceeded?
a) Never Exceed Speed
b) High Speed Buffet Limit
c) Maximum Operating Speed
d) Maximum Operational Mach Number
49.
The Density Altitude
a) is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.
b) is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.
c) is equal to the pressure altitude.
d) is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
50.
ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of
a) 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
b) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
c) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
d) 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
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