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PERFORMANCE-BNC TOTAL THEORY-MODULE4
1.
To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be
a) lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
b) higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
c) equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
d) reduced to the gust penetration speed.
2.
On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass
a) requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.
b) an increase in airspeed and power is required.
c) a higher coefficient of drag is required.
d) an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change.
3.
The optimum altitude
a) decreases as mass decreases.
b) is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained.
c) increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum.
d) is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum.
4.
The second segment begins
a) when flap retraction begins.
b) when landing gear is fully retracted.
c) when flaps are selected up.
d) when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.
5.
The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is
a) the lowest point of the drag curve.
b) on the "back side" of the drag curve.
c) at stalling speed (VS).
d) the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve.
6.
On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass
a) the airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased.
b) the airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change.
c) the airspeed and the drag will be increased.
d) the lift/drag ratio must be increased.
7.
Take-off run is defined as the
a) horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
b) distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.
c) Distance from brake release to V2.
d) distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.
8.
The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
a) in unaccelerated climb.
b) in unaccelerated level flight.
c) in accelerated level flight.
d) in descent with constant IAS.
9.
Which of the following will decrease V1?
a) Increased outside air temperature.
b) Inoperative flight management system.
c) Increased take-off mass.
d) Inoperative anti-skid.
10.
The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with JAR 25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
a) 10%
b) 23%
c) 15%
d) 20%
11.
In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
a) the aeroplane cannot be controlled manually.
b) the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight.
c) a higher speed, but still below that for minimum drag requires a higher thrust.
d) a lower speed requires a higher thrust.
12.
According to JAR-OPS 1, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
a) 60% greater than that required at an alternate airport
b) the same as that required at an alternate airport.
c) more than that required at an alternate airport.
d) less then that required at an alternate airport.
13.
Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ?
a) the resultant from lift and drag
b) the drag
c) the lift
d) the thrust
14.
When flying the "Backside of Thrust curve" means
a) a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.
b) a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased.
c) a lower airspeed requires more thrust.
d) the thrust required is independent of the airspeed.
15.
For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles may be avoided
a) by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.
b) by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.
c) only by using standard turns.
d) by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.
16.
An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is flying at a constant angle of attack, mass and configuration. With increasing altitude the drag
a) decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density.
b) remains unchanged but the TAS increases.
c) increases at constant TAS.
d) remains unchanged but the CAS increases.
17.
Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
a) Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.
b) The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient
c) VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes
d) The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
18.
Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)?
a) SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
b) SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow
c) SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
d) SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow
19.
The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
a) maximum endurance.
b) maximum specific range.
c) minimum drag.
d) minimum specific range.
20.
Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in:
a) a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.
b) a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.
c) a longer take-off distance and a better climb.
d) a better climb and an equal take-off distance.
21.
At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
a) are independent of outside air temperature (OAT).
b) increase in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.
c) decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.
d) increase with increasing altitude.
22.
In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required equal to the drag?
a) In a descent with constant TAS
b) In level flight with constant IAS
c) In accelerated level flight
d) In a climb with constant IAS
23.
The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which "power required" is minimum
a) is the same as the minimum drag speed.
b) is always higher than the minimum drag speed.
c) is always lower than the minimum drag speed.
d) is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag speed in the descent.
24.
The induced drag of an aeroplane
a) decreases with increasing airspeed.
b) is independent of the airspeed.
c) increases with increasing airspeed.
d) decreases with increasing gross weight.
25.
During take-off the third segment begins:
a) when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.
b) when flap retraction is completed.
c) when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.
d) when landing gear is fully retracted.
26.
The minimum value of V2 must exceed VMC by:
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 15%
d) 10%
27.
Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
a) Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.
b) Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.
c) Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
d) Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
28.
The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
a) does not change with changing altitude.
b) is independent of the airspeed.
c) is inversely proportional to the airspeed.
d) increases in proportion to the airspeed.
29.
A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires
a) a higher angle of attack.
b) a lower coefficient of lift.
c) a lower angle of attack.
d) a lower coefficient of drag.
30.
The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant mass in un-accelerated level flight is highest at:
a) VMO
b) VS1
c) the lowest achievable speed at a given configuration
d) VA
31.
The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit
a) improves the longitudinal stability.
b) increases the stalling speed.
c) decreases the maximum range.
d) improves the maximum range.
32.
The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
a) is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.
b) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.
c) is the maximum drag speed.
d) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.
33.
A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires
a) more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.
b) more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag.
c) a higher coefficient of lift.
d) less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.
34.
The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on
a) the bank angle only.
b) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.
c) the radius of the turn and the bank angle.
d) the true airspeed and the bank angle.
35.
According to JAR 25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than
a) 1.23 VSRO for turbojet powered and 1.30 for turboprop powered aeroplanes
b) 1.23 VSRO and must be maintained down to 50 ft height
c) VSRO and must be maintained down to 35 ft height
d) 1.2 VMCA
36.
On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required
a) decreases slightly because of the lower air density.
b) increases but TAS remains constant.
c) increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage.
d) remains unchanged but the TAS increases.
37.
The critical engine inoperative
a) increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.
b) increases the power required and the total drag due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment.
c) does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.
d) decreases the power required and increases the total drag due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment.
38.
If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is
a) lower with an aft centre of gravity position.
b) lower with a forward centre of gravity position.
c) independent from the centre of gravity position.
d) higher with a forward centre of gravity position.
39.
The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet
a) decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.
b) decreases with increasing mass and increasing altitude.
c) increases with increasing mass.
d) is only limiting at low altitudes.
40.
Long range cruise is selected as
a) specific range with tailwind.
b) the speed for best economy.
c) the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind.
d) the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative.
41.
The speed for maximum endurance
a) is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
b) is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range.
c) is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.
d) can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
42.
At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine
a) increases with decreasing OAT.
b) is independent of the airspeed.
c) decreases slightly with increasing airspeed.
d) increases slightly with increasing airspeed.
43.
Which of the following statements is correct ?
a) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface.
b) An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.
c) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.
d) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.
44.
The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
a) limits the manoeuvring load factor at high altitudes.
b) exists only above MMO.
c) has to be considered at take-off and landing.
d) can be reduced by increasing the load factor.
45.
"Maximum endurance"
a) is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel flow.
b) can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight.
c) can be flown in a steady climb only.
d) is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction.
46.
What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
a) The gliding angle decreases.
b) There is no effect.
c) The speed for best angle of descent increases.
d) The lift/drag ratio decreases.
47.
Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?
a) Maximum Take-off Thrust
b) Maximum Continuous Thrust
c) Maximum Cruise Thrust
d) Go-Around Thrust
48.
Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off ?
a) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components.
b) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components.
c) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.
d) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.
49.
Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
a) V2 and V1 should not exceed VMCG
b) VMCA and V1 should not exceed V2
c) VMCL and V1 should not exceed VR
d) VMCG and V1 should not exceed VR
50.
Moving the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged)
a) affects neither drag nor power required.
b) decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.
c) increases the induced drag.
d) increases the power required.
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