This page requires a JavaScript-enabled browser
Instructions on how to enable your browser are contained in the help file.
PERFORMANCE-BNC TOTAL THEORY-MODULE5
1.
If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
a) the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.
b) the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.
c) the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
d) the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.
2.
V2 has to be equal to or higher than
a) 1.1 VSO.
b) 1.15 VR.
c) 1.1 VMCA.
d) 1.15 VMCG.
3.
On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased
a) by low outside air temperature.
b) by uphill slope.
c) by headwind.
d) by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.
4.
'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied
a) after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude.
b) to conduct a visual approach with one engine out.
c) after cabin depressurization.
d) to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate.
5.
The take-off distance available is
a) the runway length plus half of the clearway.
b) the runway length minus stopway.
c) the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.
d) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
6.
V1 has to be
a) equal to or higher than VMCA.
b) equal to or higher than VMCG.
c) higher than VR.
d) equal to or higher than V2.
7.
The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of
a) the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
b) the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.
c) true airspeed to rate of climb.
d) rate of climb to true airspeed.
8.
The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 70%
b) 92%
c) 67%
d) 43%
9.
The optimum cruise altitude is
a) the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved.
b) the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum.
c) the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.
d) the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained.
10.
The first segment of the take-off flight path ends
a) at completion of flap retraction.
b) at reaching V2.
c) at completion of gear retraction.
d) at 35 ft above the runway.
11.
The optimum cruise altitude increases
a) if the tailwind component is decreased.
b) if the temperature (OAT) is increased.
c) if the aeroplane mass is decreased.
d) if the aeroplane mass is increased.
12.
A balanced V1 is obtained when:
a) it is equal to V2.
b) the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.
c) a stopway is used to obtain the highest runway length limited take off mass.
d) a clearway is used to obtain the highest runway length limited take off mass.
13.
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would
a) increase the required take-off distance.
b) increase the maximum mass for take-off.
c) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
d) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
14.
Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereas
a) VY and VX are increased.
b) VX is increased and VY is decreased.
c) VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass.
d) VY and VX are decreased.
15.
Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
a) higher.
b) only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.
c) lower.
d) unaffected.
16.
Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
a) If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected.
b) If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).
c) If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.
d) If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.
17.
Below the optimum cruise altitude
a) the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
b) the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
c) the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude.
d) the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
18.
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
a) The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.
b) The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.
c) The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.
d) The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.
19.
A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
a) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.
b) The clearway does not equal the stopway.
c) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
d) The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
20.
On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
a) The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.
b) The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.
c) The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.
d) The specific range and the optimum altitude increases.
21.
The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 67%
b) 92%
c) 43%
d) 70%
22.
Uphill slope
a) increases the allowed take-off mass.
b) decreases the accelerate stop distance only.
c) increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.
d) decreases the take-off distance only.
23.
What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)
a) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100
b) Climb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100
c) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100
d) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100
24.
You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ?
a) The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb.
b) No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature TAS=460 kt)
c) During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero.
d) The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS.
25.
In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1
a) the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF.
b) the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.
c) the take-off must be continued.
d) a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.
26.
If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedure
a) fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached.
b) the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the stall speed plus 10 kt.
c) the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration.
d) fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down.
27.
Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting,
a) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.
b) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.
c) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.
d) decreases rate of climb and increases angle of climb.
28.
May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Only for take-off.
d) Only for landing.
29.
The speed VR
a) must be higher than VLOF.
b) is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.
c) must be equal to or lower than V1.
d) must be higher than V2.
30.
The take-off distance required increases
a) due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
b) due to slush on the runway.
c) due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
d) due to lower gross mass at take-off.
31.
In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed
a) 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
b) 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
c) 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft.
d) 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
32.
A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature
a) has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.
b) decreases the take-off distance.
c) increases the climb limited take-off mass.
d) decreases the field length limited take-off mass.
33.
The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by
a) selecting a lower VR.
b) selecting a lower V2.
c) selecting a lower V1.
d) a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.
34.
The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
a) the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.
b) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration.
c) the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.
d) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration.
35.
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
a) A tailwind component decreases the ground distance.
b) A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.
c) A tailwind component increases the ground distance.
d) A headwind component increases the ground distance.
36.
After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
a) Emergency Descent Procedure.
b) Long Range Cruise Descent.
c) Drift Down Procedure.
d) ETOPS.
37.
The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is
a) a longer take-off run.
b) a higher V1.
c) an increased acceleration.
d) a shorter ground roll.
38.
The take-off run is
a) the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
b) the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
c) 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
d) 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative.
39.
A higher outside air temperature (OAT)
a) increases the field length limited take-off mass.
b) increases the climb limited take-off mass.
c) decreases the take-off distance.
d) decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass.
40.
The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass
a) is independent of altitude.
b) increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density.
c) increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.
d) decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density.
41.
Reduced take-off thrust
a) is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
b) can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.
c) has the benefit of improving engine life.
d) can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass.
42.
As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb
a) VY is always above VMO.
b) VX is always above VY.
c) VX may be greater or less than VY depending on altitude
d) VX is always below VY.
43.
The rate of climb
a) is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.
b) is the downhill component of the true airspeed.
c) is the horizontal component of the true airspeed.
d) is angle of climb times true airspeed.
44.
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would
a) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
b) increase the maximum mass for take-off.
c) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
d) decrease the required take-off distance.
45.
If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be
a) only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.
b) lower.
c) higher.
d) unchanged.
46.
With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is (assume altitude remains constant)
a) reduced.
b) not affected.
c) improved.
d) first improved and later reduced.
47.
In unaccelerated climb
a) thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.
b) thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.
c) lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.
d) lift is greater than the gross weight.
48.
Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available ?
a) Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.
b) No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway.
c) Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.
d) No.
49.
In case of an engine failure recognized below V1
a) the take-off must be rejected.
b) the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.
c) the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available.
d) the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1.
50.
How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ?
a) Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.
b) Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.
c) Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.
d) Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.
This is more feedback!
This is the feedback!
Data Base Login Information: Please make
sure that you enter your name before
submitting your results.
My Name
*Enter your name here
Back to Top
