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PERFORMANCE-BNC TOTAL THEORY-MODULE2
1.
An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio
a) increases / constant / increases
b) increases / increases / constant
c) increases / increases / decreases
d) decreases / constant / decreases
2.
An aeroplane is in a power off glide at speed for minimum glide angle. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance:
a) decreases.
b) may increase or decrease depending on the type of aeroplane.
c) remains the same.
d) increases.
3.
Maximum endurance for a piston engine aeroplane is achieved at:
a) The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle.
b) The speed for maximum lift coefficient.
c) The speed for minimum drag.
d) The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed.
4.
The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:
a) at the service ceiling.
b) at the optimum cruise altitude.
c) at the practical ceiling.
d) at the lowest possible altitude.
5.
During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
a) increase, because the lift coefficient increases.
b) remain constant, because the Mach number remains constant.
c) decrease, because the lift coefficient decreases.
d) increase, because the lift coefficient decreases.
6.
A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
a) Reduce / remain constant.
b) Reduce / decrease.
c) Remain constant / decrease.
d) Remain constant / become larger.
7.
A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow change?
a) Increase / decrease.
b) Increase / increase.
c) Decrease / decrease.
d) Decrease / increase.
8.
During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
a) decrease.
b) increase at first and decrease later on.
c) remain constant.
d) increase.
9.
During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum range speed, the IAS / the drag will:
a) increase / decrease.
b) increase / increase.
c) decrease / increase.
d) decrease / decrease.
10.
An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270. How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
a) Increases in the first part; is constant in the second.
b) Is constant in the first part; decreases in the second.
c) Increases in the first part; decreases in the second.
d) Decreases in the first part; increases in the second.
11.
Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
a) Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at g-loads greater than 1.
b) A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded the optimum altitude.
c) A step climb is executed in principle when, just after levelling off, the 1.3g altitude is reached.
d) A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher altitude.
12.
Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
a) Mass and altitude.
b) Configuration and mass.
c) Configuration and angle of attack.
d) Altitude and configuration.
13.
Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ?
a) There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.
b) At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane.
c) At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane.
d) At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane.
14.
What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
a) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
b) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
c) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant.
d) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.
15.
For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to:
a) 1.1 Vs
b) 1.2 Vs
c) the maximum CL/CD² ratio
d) the maximum CL/CD ratio
16.
The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
a) The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.
b) The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.
c) The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.
d) The thrust is equal to minimum drag.
17.
With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct ?
a) An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the most economic result.
b) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur.
c) An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as the most attractive altitude.
d) An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude increases continuously during flight.
18.
How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (No compressibility effects.)
a) The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
b) The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.
c) Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
d) The lift coefficient is independent of altitude.
19.
What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass.)
a) The drag remains almost constant.
b) The drag increases considerably.
c) The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.
d) The drag decreases.
20.
Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds)
a) Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.
b) Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.
c) Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed.
d) Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.
21.
If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a given mass which of the following will occur?
a) An increased long range performance.
b) A lower cruise Mach number.
c) A higher cruise Mach number.
d) An increased maximum range.
22.
For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed' ?
a) Minimum fuel flow.
b) Minimum specific fuel consumption.
c) Minimum drag.
d) Longest flight duration.
23.
The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
a) The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.
b) The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.
c) The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.
d) The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.
24.
What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?
a) The "1.3G" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.
b) The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.
c) The lift coefficient increases.
d) IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.
25.
Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
a) The speed for maximum climb angle Vx.
b) 1.2Vs.
c) The speed for maximum rate of climb.
d) The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP.
26.
Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
a) Increase of aircraft mass.
b) Headwind.
c) Decrease of aircraft mass.
d) Tailwind.
27.
Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
a) Low mass.
b) High mass.
c) Tailwind.
d) Headwind.
28.
Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'?
a) In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.
b) The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed.
c) It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed.
d) In order to achieve speed stability.
29.
Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) .........
a) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
b) (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
c) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
d) (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
30.
If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct ?
a) V1 must be increased to at least the value of VMCG.
b) The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.
c) The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.
d) The VMCG will be lowered to V1.
31.
In accordance to JAR 25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
a) VMCG, V2
b) VLOF, VMCA.
c) VSR, VMCA
d) V1, VR.
32.
Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed. Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation?
a) IAS.
b) TAS.
c) Groundspeed.
d) ESS.
33.
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
a) the runway is wet.
b) the runway is dry.
c) it is dark.
d) windshear is reported on the take-off path.
34.
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
a) the OAT is ISA +10°C
b) anti skid is not usable.
c) it is dark.
d) the runway is wet.
35.
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
a) obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.
b) it is dark.
c) the runway is contaminated.
d) the runway is wet.
36.
The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
a) The actual take-off mass (TOM) is lower than the field length limited TOM.
b) The actual take-off mass (TOM) including a margin is greater than the performance limited TOM.
c) The actual take-off mass (TOM) is greater than the climb limited TOM.
d) The take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required one engine out at V1.
37.
When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance:
a) decreases / remains constant.
b) remains constant / remains constant.
c) decreases / decreases.
d) increases / increases.
38.
Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
a) V1 is increased.
b) The field length limited take-off mass will increase.
c) V1 remains constant.
d) The usable length of the clearway is not limited.
39.
In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VCMA
a) Low take-off mass, small flap extension, low field elevation.
b) High take-off mass, small flap extension, high field elevation.
c) High take-off mass, large flap extension, low field elevation.
d) Low take-off mass, large flap extension, low field elevation.
40.
Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take-off?
a) High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.
b) High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short runway.
c) Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.
d) Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient temperature.
41.
The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
a) manoeuvrability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.
b) minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
c) obstacle clearance in the approach area.
d) manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.
42.
How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?
a) V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.
b) V2 has the same value in both cases.
c) V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.
d) V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.
43.
What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-off?
a) The climb limited take-off mass is the highest.
b) The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.
c) The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.
d) The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.
44.
During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
a) By selecting a higher flap setting.
b) By selecting a higher V2.
c) By selecting a lower flap setting.
d) By selecting a lower V2.
45.
Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
a) A high runway elevation and tail wind.
b) A low runway elevation and a head wind.
c) A low runway elevation and a cross wind.
d) A high runway elevation and a head wind.
46.
During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V1?
a) It may lead to over-rotation.
b) The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.
c) The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.
d) V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
47.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The take-off distance with one engine out is independent of the wind component.
b) The climb limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component.
c) The performance limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component.
d) The accelerate stop distance required is independent of the runway condition.
48.
The drift down requirements are based on:
a) the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed.
b) the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.
c) the landing mass limit at the alternate.
d) the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.
49.
Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
a) It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the "net take off flight path".
b) It should not be corrected for 30° bank turns in the take-off path.
c) It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the respect to the "net take-off flight path".
d) It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited take-off mass.
50.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) VR should not be higher than V1.
b) VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.
c) VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.
d) VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
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