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PERFORMANCE-BNC TOTAL THEORY-MODULE4
1.
The second segment begins
a) when landing gear is fully retracted.
b) when flaps are selected up.
c) when flap retraction begins.
d) when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.
2.
Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
a) V2 and V1 should not exceed VMCG
b) VMCA and V1 should not exceed V2
c) VMCG and V1 should not exceed VR
d) VMCL and V1 should not exceed VR
3.
Take-off run is defined as the
a) Distance from brake release to V2.
b) distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.
c) horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
d) distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.
4.
The minimum value of V2 must exceed VMC by:
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 10%
d) 15%
5.
Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
a) Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
b) Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
c) Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.
d) Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.
6.
For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles may be avoided
a) by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.
b) by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.
c) only by using standard turns.
d) by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.
7.
Which of the following statements is correct ?
a) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface.
b) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.
c) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.
d) An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.
8.
According to JAR 25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than
a) 1.2 VMCA
b) 1.23 VSRO for turbojet powered and 1.30 for turboprop powered aeroplanes
c) VSRO and must be maintained down to 35 ft height
d) 1.23 VSRO and must be maintained down to 50 ft height
9.
During take-off the third segment begins:
a) when flap retraction is completed.
b) when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.
c) when landing gear is fully retracted.
d) when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.
10.
Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
a) The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
b) Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.
c) VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes
d) The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient
11.
Which of the following will decrease V1?
a) Inoperative flight management system.
b) Inoperative anti-skid.
c) Increased outside air temperature.
d) Increased take-off mass.
12.
Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off ?
a) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.
b) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.
c) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components.
d) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components.
13.
According to JAR-OPS 1, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
a) less then that required at an alternate airport.
b) more than that required at an alternate airport.
c) 60% greater than that required at an alternate airport
d) the same as that required at an alternate airport.
14.
Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in:
a) a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.
b) a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.
c) a longer take-off distance and a better climb.
d) a better climb and an equal take-off distance.
15.
The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with JAR 25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
a) 15%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 23%
16.
If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is
a) lower with an aft centre of gravity position.
b) independent from the centre of gravity position.
c) lower with a forward centre of gravity position.
d) higher with a forward centre of gravity position.
17.
What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
a) The speed for best angle of descent increases.
b) The gliding angle decreases.
c) There is no effect.
d) The lift/drag ratio decreases.
18.
Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ?
a) the resultant from lift and drag
b) the lift
c) the drag
d) the thrust
19.
In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required equal to the drag?
a) In a descent with constant TAS
b) In level flight with constant IAS
c) In accelerated level flight
d) In a climb with constant IAS
20.
The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on
a) the radius of the turn and the bank angle.
b) the true airspeed and the bank angle.
c) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.
d) the bank angle only.
21.
The induced drag of an aeroplane
a) decreases with increasing gross weight.
b) decreases with increasing airspeed.
c) is independent of the airspeed.
d) increases with increasing airspeed.
22.
The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant mass in un-accelerated level flight is highest at:
a) VMO
b) the lowest achievable speed at a given configuration
c) VA
d) VS1
23.
The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
a) minimum drag.
b) maximum endurance.
c) minimum specific range.
d) maximum specific range.
24.
The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is
a) the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve.
b) the lowest point of the drag curve.
c) on the "back side" of the drag curve.
d) at stalling speed (VS).
25.
The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which "power required" is minimum
a) is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag speed in the descent.
b) is always higher than the minimum drag speed.
c) is the same as the minimum drag speed.
d) is always lower than the minimum drag speed.
26.
The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
a) is the maximum drag speed.
b) is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.
c) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.
d) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.
27.
On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass
a) the airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased.
b) the lift/drag ratio must be increased.
c) the airspeed and the drag will be increased.
d) the airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change.
28.
On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass
a) an increase in airspeed and power is required.
b) an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change.
c) requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.
d) a higher coefficient of drag is required.
29.
An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is flying at a constant angle of attack, mass and configuration. With increasing altitude the drag
a) increases at constant TAS.
b) remains unchanged but the TAS increases.
c) remains unchanged but the CAS increases.
d) decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density.
30.
On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required
a) decreases slightly because of the lower air density.
b) increases but TAS remains constant.
c) remains unchanged but the TAS increases.
d) increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage.
31.
Moving the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged)
a) affects neither drag nor power required.
b) decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.
c) increases the induced drag.
d) increases the power required.
32.
The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit
a) increases the stalling speed.
b) decreases the maximum range.
c) improves the longitudinal stability.
d) improves the maximum range.
33.
The critical engine inoperative
a) does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.
b) increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.
c) increases the power required and the total drag due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment.
d) decreases the power required and increases the total drag due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment.
34.
The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet
a) decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.
b) increases with increasing mass.
c) decreases with increasing mass and increasing altitude.
d) is only limiting at low altitudes.
35.
The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
a) can be reduced by increasing the load factor.
b) exists only above MMO.
c) has to be considered at take-off and landing.
d) limits the manoeuvring load factor at high altitudes.
36.
Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?
a) Maximum Cruise Thrust
b) Maximum Continuous Thrust
c) Maximum Take-off Thrust
d) Go-Around Thrust
37.
At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine
a) is independent of the airspeed.
b) increases slightly with increasing airspeed.
c) decreases slightly with increasing airspeed.
d) increases with decreasing OAT.
38.
At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
a) increase with increasing altitude.
b) are independent of outside air temperature (OAT).
c) increase in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.
d) decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.
39.
The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
a) is inversely proportional to the airspeed.
b) does not change with changing altitude.
c) increases in proportion to the airspeed.
d) is independent of the airspeed.
40.
The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
a) in unaccelerated level flight.
b) in accelerated level flight.
c) in descent with constant IAS.
d) in unaccelerated climb.
41.
In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
a) a higher speed, but still below that for minimum drag requires a higher thrust.
b) the aeroplane cannot be controlled manually.
c) the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight.
d) a lower speed requires a higher thrust.
42.
A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires
a) more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag.
b) more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.
c) less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.
d) a higher coefficient of lift.
43.
A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires
a) a lower coefficient of lift.
b) a higher angle of attack.
c) a lower angle of attack.
d) a lower coefficient of drag.
44.
When flying the "Backside of Thrust curve" means
a) a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.
b) a lower airspeed requires more thrust.
c) the thrust required is independent of the airspeed.
d) a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased.
45.
"Maximum endurance"
a) is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel flow.
b) can be flown in a steady climb only.
c) can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight.
d) is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction.
46.
The speed for maximum endurance
a) is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range.
b) is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
c) can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
d) is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.
47.
Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)?
a) SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow
b) SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
c) SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
d) SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow
48.
Long range cruise is selected as
a) the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind.
b) the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative.
c) specific range with tailwind.
d) the speed for best economy.
49.
The optimum altitude
a) is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum.
b) increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum.
c) decreases as mass decreases.
d) is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained.
50.
To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be
a) higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
b) lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
c) reduced to the gust penetration speed.
d) equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
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