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PERFORMANCE-BNC TOTAL THEORY-MODULE5
1.
The take-off run is
a) 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
b) the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
c) 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative.
d) the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
2.
Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available ?
a) No.
b) No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway.
c) Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.
d) Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.
3.
May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?
a) Yes.
b) Only for take-off.
c) No.
d) Only for landing.
4.
In case of an engine failure recognized below V1
a) the take-off must be rejected.
b) the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.
c) the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available.
d) the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1.
5.
In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1
a) a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.
b) the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.
c) the take-off must be continued.
d) the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF.
6.
The take-off distance available is
a) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
b) the runway length plus half of the clearway.
c) the runway length minus stopway.
d) the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.
7.
The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is
a) a longer take-off run.
b) an increased acceleration.
c) a higher V1.
d) a shorter ground roll.
8.
Reduced take-off thrust
a) is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
b) can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.
c) has the benefit of improving engine life.
d) can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass.
9.
How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ?
a) Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.
b) Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.
c) Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.
d) Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.
10.
A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature
a) increases the climb limited take-off mass.
b) decreases the field length limited take-off mass.
c) has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.
d) decreases the take-off distance.
11.
A higher outside air temperature (OAT)
a) increases the field length limited take-off mass.
b) decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass.
c) decreases the take-off distance.
d) increases the climb limited take-off mass.
12.
The take-off distance required increases
a) due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
b) due to lower gross mass at take-off.
c) due to slush on the runway.
d) due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
13.
Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
a) higher.
b) unaffected.
c) only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.
d) lower.
14.
On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased
a) by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.
b) by low outside air temperature.
c) by headwind.
d) by uphill slope.
15.
Uphill slope
a) increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.
b) decreases the accelerate stop distance only.
c) decreases the take-off distance only.
d) increases the allowed take-off mass.
16.
A balanced V1 is obtained when:
a) a clearway is used to obtain the highest runway length limited take off mass.
b) the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.
c) a stopway is used to obtain the highest runway length limited take off mass.
d) it is equal to V2.
17.
A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
a) The clearway does not equal the stopway.
b) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
c) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.
d) The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
18.
V2 has to be equal to or higher than
a) 1.15 VR.
b) 1.15 VMCG.
c) 1.1 VSO.
d) 1.1 VMCA.
19.
V1 has to be
a) equal to or higher than VMCG.
b) higher than VR.
c) equal to or higher than VMCA.
d) equal to or higher than V2.
20.
The speed VR
a) must be higher than V2.
b) is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.
c) must be higher than VLOF.
d) must be equal to or lower than V1.
21.
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would
a) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
b) decrease the required take-off distance.
c) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
d) increase the maximum mass for take-off.
22.
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would
a) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
b) increase the maximum mass for take-off.
c) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
d) increase the required take-off distance.
23.
The first segment of the take-off flight path ends
a) at reaching V2.
b) at 35 ft above the runway.
c) at completion of gear retraction.
d) at completion of flap retraction.
24.
The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by
a) selecting a lower V1.
b) selecting a lower VR.
c) selecting a lower V2.
d) a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.
25.
In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed
a) 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
b) 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
c) 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
d) 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft.
26.
You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ?
a) During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero.
b) No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature TAS=460 kt)
c) The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb.
d) The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS.
27.
If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be
a) only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.
b) unchanged.
c) lower.
d) higher.
28.
The optimum cruise altitude is
a) the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum.
b) the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved.
c) the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained.
d) the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.
29.
The optimum cruise altitude increases
a) if the temperature (OAT) is increased.
b) if the tailwind component is decreased.
c) if the aeroplane mass is decreased.
d) if the aeroplane mass is increased.
30.
Below the optimum cruise altitude
a) the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
b) the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude.
c) the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
d) the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
31.
Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
a) If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.
b) If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).
c) If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected.
d) If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.
32.
After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
a) Long Range Cruise Descent.
b) Emergency Descent Procedure.
c) Drift Down Procedure.
d) ETOPS.
33.
'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied
a) to conduct a visual approach with one engine out.
b) after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude.
c) to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate.
d) after cabin depressurization.
34.
If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedure
a) the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the stall speed plus 10 kt.
b) fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached.
c) fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down.
d) the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration.
35.
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
a) The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.
b) The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.
c) The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.
d) The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.
36.
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
a) A headwind component increases the ground distance.
b) A tailwind component increases the ground distance.
c) A tailwind component decreases the ground distance.
d) A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.
37.
The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
a) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration.
b) the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.
c) the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.
d) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration.
38.
The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 70%
b) 43%
c) 92%
d) 67%
39.
The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 70%
b) 67%
c) 92%
d) 43%
40.
On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
a) The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.
b) The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.
c) The specific range and the optimum altitude increases.
d) The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.
41.
With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is (assume altitude remains constant)
a) improved.
b) reduced.
c) not affected.
d) first improved and later reduced.
42.
In unaccelerated climb
a) lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.
b) lift is greater than the gross weight.
c) thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.
d) thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.
43.
What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)
a) Climb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100
b) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100
c) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100
d) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100
44.
The rate of climb
a) is the horizontal component of the true airspeed.
b) is angle of climb times true airspeed.
c) is the downhill component of the true airspeed.
d) is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.
45.
If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
a) the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.
b) the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.
c) the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.
d) the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
46.
Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting,
a) decreases rate of climb and increases angle of climb.
b) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.
c) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.
d) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.
47.
As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb
a) VX is always above VY.
b) VY is always above VMO.
c) VX is always below VY.
d) VX may be greater or less than VY depending on altitude
48.
The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass
a) is independent of altitude.
b) decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density.
c) increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density.
d) increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.
49.
The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of
a) the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.
b) true airspeed to rate of climb.
c) the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
d) rate of climb to true airspeed.
50.
Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereas
a) VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass.
b) VX is increased and VY is decreased.
c) VY and VX are increased.
d) VY and VX are decreased.
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