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RADNAV-BNC TOTAL THEORY-MODULE1
1.
When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:
a) altitude based on regional QNH
b) aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
c) height based on QFE
d) flight level based on 1013.25 hPa
2.
The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
a) reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift
b) DME pulse recurrence rates are varied
c) aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies
d) DME transmits twin pulses
3.
Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?
a) stratus
b) cirrocumulus
c) cumulus
d) altostratus
4.
A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
a) Two
b) Six
c) Four
d) Eight
5.
The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
a) detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud
b) inhibit unwanted ground returns
c) extend the mapping range
d) give an indication of cloud tops
6.
In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:
a) pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM
b) fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM
c) fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range
d) pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM
7.
What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 4
d) 3
8.
Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
a) HF
b) SHF
c) UHF
d) VHF
9.
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
a) 7500
b) 7600
c) 7700
d) 7000
10.
The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies: Transmitter Receiver
a) 1090 MHz 1030 MHz
b) 1030 MHz 1090 MHz
c) 1030 MHz 1030 MHz
d) 1090 MHz 1090 MHz
11.
An RMI indicates aircraft heading and bearing. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is:
a) NDB: beacon position VOR: aircraft position
b) NDB: aircraft position VOR: aircraft position
c) NDB: aircraft position VOR: beacon position
d) NDB: beacon position VOR: beacon position
12.
Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
a) obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam
b) detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large
c) transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range
d) detect the larger water droplets
13.
In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
a) VHF
b) UHF
c) SHF
d) EHF
14.
In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:
a) at both the VOR and aircraft
b) at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station
c) at the aircraft location
d) at the VOR
15.
An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:
a) the transmitter moves towards the receiver
b) both transmitter and receiver move towards each other
c) the transmitter moves away from the receiver
d) the receiver moves towards the transmitter
16.
An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
a) the pulse recurrence rates are varied
b) they are not on the receiver frequency
c) DME uses the UHF band
d) DME transmits twin pulses
17.
The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
a) phase comparison
b) beat frequency discrimination
c) difference in depth of modulation
d) envelope matching
18.
For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of aircraft interrogations exceeds:
a) 60
b) 80
c) 100
d) 200
19.
What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
a) 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline
b) 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline
c) 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline
d) 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser centreline
20.
Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is:
a) inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
b) near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
c) near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
d) inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
21.
In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within……… of the published approach track.
a) +/-2.5°
b) +/-2°
c) +/-5°
d) +/-10°
22.
The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
a) the time interval between pulse pairs is unique to that particular aircraft
b) pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
c) transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
d) aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed from each other
23.
'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
a) interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB
b) static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band
c) the effect of the Aurora Borealis
d) skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk
24.
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
a) A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
b) The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
c) The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
d) The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources
25.
Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:
a) 2000 Hz
b) 400 Hz
c) 1300 Hz
d) 3000 Hz
26.
An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
a) right drift
b) a wind from the west
c) zero drift
d) left drift
27.
The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
a) 3000 Hz, blue
b) 400 Hz, blue
c) 400 Hz, amber
d) 1300 Hz, blue
28.
The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is:
a) heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals
b) to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions
c) aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals
d) to increase distance from the runway during offset approach operations
29.
A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
a) 10 MHz
b) 1000 MHz
c) 100 MHz
d) 100 GHz
30.
A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
a) transponder interrogation
b) pulse technique
c) continuous wave transmission
d) phase comparison
31.
The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by a series of:
a) alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing
b) dots and a white light flashing
c) two dashes per second and a blue light flashing
d) dashes and an amber light flashing
32.
The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of:
a) 200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse
b) 75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse
c) 300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second
d) 75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second
33.
Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
a) signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
b) misalignment of the loop aerial
c) signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring
d) skywave/groundwave contamination
34.
In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
a) When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit
b) When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM
c) When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it
d) When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more
35.
The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error should not exceed:
a) + or - 3 NM
b) + or - 1.25 NM
c) + or - 1.5 NM
d) + or - 0.25 NM
36.
An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
a) SE
b) NE
c) SW
d) NW
37.
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
a) VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
b) UHF band and uses one frequency
c) UHF band and uses two frequencies
d) SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques
38.
An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
a) less than 10°
b) 10° or more
c) 2.5 or more
d) 1.5° or more
39.
In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designated by a VOR/DME simple RNAV system, the VOR/DME
a) has to be positively identified by one of the pilots
b) must be in range
c) does not have to be in range when entered or used
d) does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used
40.
If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:
a) sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency
b) interference from other transmitters
c) noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter
d) sky wave interference from the same transmitter
41.
In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
a) VHF
b) EHF
c) UHF
d) SHF
42.
An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
a) only glide path information is available
b) can expect signals to give correct indications
c) will receive signals without identification coding
d) may receive false course indications
43.
Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
a) Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day
b) Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
c) Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
d) Frequency drift at the ground station
44.
In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous string of pulses on a frequency close to 100 kHz?
a) Decca
b) GPS
c) Loran C
d) Doppler
45.
Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
a) An ADF sited on the flight route
b) A DME station sited across the flight route
c) A VOR station sited on the flight route
d) A DME station sited on the flight route
46.
During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:
a) altitude is too high
b) aeroplane is below the 'line of sight' altitude
c) range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM
d) aeroplane is circling around the station
47.
Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit display, what does each of the dots represent approximately ?:
a) 2.0 degrees
b) 1.5 degrees
c) 2.5 degrees
d) 0.5 degrees
48.
Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
a) night effect
b) static interference
c) quadrantal error
d) uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
49.
What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
a) blue - amber - white
b) blue - green - white
c) white - amber - blue
d) amber - white - green
50.
The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
a) 962 to 1213 kHz.
b) 329 to 335 MHz
c) 108 to 118 MHz
d) 962 to 1213 MHz
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