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RADIO NAV-RH-THEORY-CHAPTER10-SECONDARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR
1.
The SSR conspicuity code is:
a) 7000
b) 2000
c) 0033
d) 4321
2.
The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
a) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
b) an emergency
c) transponder malfunction
d) radio communication failure
3.
With regard to the advantages of SSR which of the following statements is correct?
a) Little power is required to effect longish range
b) No aircraft manoeuvres are necessary for identification
c) Range, bearing and height can be calculated from reply signals
d) All of the above
4.
A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used in:
a) mode C only
b) mode A only
c) all modes
d) mode S
5.
The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
a) an emergency
b) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
c) transponder malfunction
d) radio communication failure
6.
When a mode C interrogation is responded to, vertical position of the aircraft is coded and transmitted. This vertical position is referred to:
a) the sub-scale of the altimeter
b) area QNH
c) 1013.2 hPa
d) any of the above as directed by ATC
7.
Data transmission and exchange is conducted in:
a) Mode A
b) Mode C
c) Mode D
d) Mode S
8.
‘Fruiting’ is caused by:
a) Aeroplanes in close proximity responding to the same interrogation
b) An aeroplane’s transponder responding to side lobes or reflctionsof the
interrogation signal
c) Aeroplane at range responding to interrogations from another ATC, SSR
d) Doppler effect on targets moving radially towards or away from the SSR
9.
With regard to SSR which of the following statements is true:
a) it is a secondary radar system operating in the UHF frequency band
b) mode A is used for identification, with mode C for automatic height
information
c) it is compulsory when flying in Upper Airspace and in the whole of UK
controlled airspace under IFR to carry Mode A 4096 codes and also Mode C
d) all of the above
10.
Garbling is caused by:
a) an aeroplane’s transponder responding to side lobes or reflections of the interrogation signal
b) aeroplane is in close proximity responding to the same interrogation
c) aeroplane at range responding to interrogations from another ATC, SSR
d) Doppler effect on targets moving radially towards or away from the SSR
11.
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured:
a) magenta
b) flashing red
c) white or magenta
d) high colour gradient
12.
The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
a) 1050 +/- 0.5 Mhz
b) 1030 +/- 0.2 Mhz
c) 1090 +/- 0.3 Mhz
d) 1120 +/- 0.6 Mhz
13.
Which SSR mode A code should be selected when entering European airspace from an area where no code has been allocated:
a) 7000
b) 7500
c) 2000
d) 0000
14.
A mode A/C transponder will:
a) Not respond to interrogations made on mode S
b) Respond to mode S interrogations but cannot send data
c) Respond to mode S interrogations with limited data
d) Not respond to mode S as it is on a different frequency
15.
The ATC transponder system excluding Mode S contains:
a) four modes, each 1024 codes
b) two modes, each 4096 codes
c) four modes, each 4096 codes
d) two modes, each 1024 codes
16.
ATC area surveillance radars will normally operate to a maximum range of:
a) 100 nm
b) 200 nm
c) 300 nm
d) 400 nm
17.
What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system?
a) Aircraft position only
b) Aircraft position and SSR code
c) Aircraft position, SSR code and altitude
d) Aircraft altitude
18.
With reference to SSR, what code is used to indicate transponder altitude failure?
a) 9999
b) 0000
c) 4096
d) 7600
19.
An area surveillance radar is most likely to use a frequency of:
a) 350 MHz
b) 600 MHz
c) 100 Hz
d) 150 Hz
20.
With regard to SSR:
a) The interrogator is on the ground and the transponder is on the ground
b) The interrogator is on the ground and the transponder is in the aircraft
c) the interrogator is in the aircraft and the transponder is on the ground
d) The interrogator is on the aircraft and the transponder is in the aircraft
21.
With SSR interrogation and response signals:
a) Are separated by 63 MHz
b) Must be set by the pilot but are always 60 MHz apart
c) Are at standard frequencies separated by 60 MHz
d) Are at variable frequencies set by the controller and are always 63 MHz
22.
What most affects the range available from a secondary radar?
a) The transmission power of aircraft interrogator
b) The transmission power of ground transponder
c) The height of aircraft and height of ground interrogator
d) The PRP
23.
What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillnce Radar (SSR) transponder codes?
a) 4096
b) 3600
c) 1000
d) 760
24.
In special Condition signals, to signify radio failure, which of the following codes should you select on your transponder?
a) 7700
b) ident
c) 7500
d) 7600
25.
Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation hasnot been required?
a) 0000
b) 5000
c) 7000
d) 2000
26.
What transponder code is selected in the event of radio failure:
a) 7000
b) 7500
c) 7600
d) 7700
27.
In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
a) 7600
b) 7500
c) 7000
d) 7700
28.
A radar which employs an interrogator/transponder technique is:
a) primary radar
b) continuous wave radar
c) secondary radar
d) Doppler radar
29.
Which of the following systems use pulse technique?
a) secondary surveillance radar
b) airborne weather radar
c) distance measuring equipment
d) primary radar
30.
In the SSR response, the operation of the transponder ident button:
a) transmits the aeroplanes registration or flight number as a data coded
sequence
b) sends a special pulse after the normal response pulse train
c) sends a special pulse before the normal response pulse train
d) sends a special pulse in the X position on the pulse train
31.
The SSR ground transceiver interrogates on ___ and receives responses on ___
a) 1030 MHz, 1030 MHz
b) 1030 MHz, 1090 MHz
c) 1090 MHz, 1030 MHz
d) 1090 MHz, 1090 MHz
32.
When a Mode C check is carried out, and assuming the equipment is working without error, the Mode C will report a pressure altitude of 35.064 ft as flight level:
a) 350
b) 35064
c) 3506
d) 351
33.
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
a) The principle of echo return is not used in secondary radar
b) The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
c) A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
d) The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources
34.
The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
a) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
b) an emergency
c) transponder malfunction
d) entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been
required
35.
SSR is not affected by weather clutter because:
a) It uses different frequencies for transmission and reception
b) The wavelength is too short to be reflected from cloud droplets
c) The equipment uses a moving target indicator
d) The frequency used penetrates clouds
36.
The vertical position provided by SSR mode C is referenced to:
a) QNH unless QFE is in use
b) 1013.25 HPa
c) QNH
d) WGS 84 datum
37.
In which of the following meteorological conditions would you expect to encounter an increased distance to the radar horizon:
a) surface inversion of temperature and humidity
b) surface steep lapse rate of temperature and humidity
c) a steep lapse rate of temperature with an inversion of humidity
d) an inversion of temperature with a steep lapse rate of humidity
38.
In ATC surveillance radar procedures, if primary radar fails but coverage continues to be provided by SSR:
a) Full radar control with standard radar separation will be maintained
b) Non-radar separation standards will be introduced as soon as possible
c) All radar assistance will be terminated immediately
d) Radar assistance will be terminated after standard separation has been introduced
39.
The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies (transmitter; receiver):
a) 1090 MHz; 1090 MHz
b) 1090 MHz; 1030 MHz
c) 1030 MHz; 1090 MHz
d) 1030 MHz; 1030 MHz
40.
If an aircraft is hijacked it is recommended that the pilot set transponder code:
a) 7700
b) 7500
c) 7600
d) 7300
41.
What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes in Mode A?
a) 1000
b) 3600
c) 4096
d) 760
42.
During a surveillance radar approach, the vertical position of the aeroplane, unless advised otherwise, is given in terms of:
a) Height above aerodrome level
b) Height above area QNH datum
c) Height above QFE threshold
d) Height above aerodrome QNH datum
43.
Which of the following radar equipment operate by means of the pulse technique?
1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
2. Airborne Weather Radar
3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 2 and 4 only
44.
What transponder code is selected in the event of an emergency:
a) 7000
b) 7500
c) 7600
d) 7700
45.
Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with SSR?
a) The frequency is too high
b) SSR does not use the echo principle
c) The PRF is jittered
d) By the use of MTI to remove stationary and slow moving returns
46.
SSR, in ATC use:
a) is complementary to primary radar
b) suffers from greater attention (than primary radar) due to the higher
frequency used
c) replaces primary radar
d) uses primary radar techniques
47.
When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:
a) height based on QFE
b) altitude based on regional QNH
c) aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
d) flight level based on 1013.25 hPa
48.
Which of the following equipment works on the interrogator/transponder principle?
a) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
b) Global Positioning System (GPS)
c) Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
d) Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
49.
The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode:
a) A
b) C
c) S
d) All
50.
What are the frequencies used for interrogation and response for SSR?
a) 1090 MHz for interrogation from the ground 1030 MHz for response from the aircraft
b) 1030 MHz for interrogation from the ground 1090 MHz for response from the aircraft
c) 1090 MHz for interrogation from the aircraft 1030 MHz for response from the ground
d) 1030 MHz for interrogation from the aircraft 1090 MHz for response from
the ground
51.
With normal SSR mode A coding the aircraft replies by sending back a train of up to 12 pulses contained between 2 framing pulses with:
a) 4096 codes in 4 boxes
b) 2048 codes in 4 boxes
c) 4096 codes in 12 boxes
d) 1096 codes in 8 boxes
52.
With SSR, interrogation and response signals:
a) are separated by 63 MHz
b) must be set by the pilot but are always 60 MHz apart
c) are at standard frequencies separated by 60 MHz
d) are at variable frequencies set by the controller but are always 63 MHz apart
53.
The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
a) an emergency
b) radio communication failure
c) transponder malfunction
d) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
54.
Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder malfunction?
a) 7600
b) 0000
c) 4096
d) 9999
55.
The accuracy of SSR height as displayed to the air traffic controller is:
a) +/- 25 ft
b) +/- 50
c) +/- 75 ft
d) +/- 100 ft
56.
The SSR code for a total radio failure is:
a) A7500
b) A7600
c) A7500 plus mode C
d) A7600 plus mode C
57.
The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:
a) phase differences
b) pulses
c) frequency differences
d) amplitude differences
58.
Which of the following statements regarding Mode S is most correct:
a) Mode S is used to assist in GPS calculations
b) Mode S transponders are used with the radio altimeter
c) Mode S transponders reduce R/T traffic and also provide the aircraft with a data link facility
d) Mode S and Mode A/C transponders use different frequencies of operation
59.
Which one of the following switch positions should be used when selecting a code on the Transponder?
a) NORMAL
b) OFF
c) STBY (Standby)
d) IDENT (Identification)
60.
Why do clouds not appear on secondary radar screens:
a) Too high a frequency
b) Too low a frequency
c) They do not provide an echo by returning signals
d) The transmit and receive signals are on different frequencies
61.
In SSR, the interrogations use different modes. If altitude reporting is required, the aeroplane’s transponder should be set to “ALT” and will respond to:
a) Mode C interrogations only
b) Mode A interrogations only
c) Mode C and A interrogations
d) Mode C and Ident interrogations
62.
SSR uses wide aperture aerials to:
a) reduce side lobe effects
b) improve bearing discrimination
c) improve range discrimination
d) reduce the vertical beam width
63.
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
a) 7000
b) 7700
c) 7600
d) 7500
64.
Which statement regarding Mode S transponders is most correct?
a) Mode S transponders reduce RT traffic and provide a datalink facility
b) Mode S transponders are used with TCAS III
c) Mode S transponders are used to assist GPS positioning
d) Mode S and Mode C transponders operate on different frequencies
65.
Selection of mode C on the SSR provides ATC with information based on:
a) aircraft height above QFE
b) aircraft altitude as indicated on the captains altimeter
c) aircraft pressure altitude
d) aircraft height above the surface
66.
Precision Approach Radars are required under the ICAO specifications to indicate an aircraft within the following parameters:
a) Azimuth: 10o, Vertical: 4o, Range: 7 nm
b) Azimuth: 20o, Vertical: 7o, Range: 9 nm
c) Azimuth: 30o, Vertical: 10o, Range: 10 nm
d) Azimuth: 40o, Vertical: 15o, Range: 15 nm
67.
In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
a) 7600
b) 7500
c) 7700
d) 7000
68.
The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
a) the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation between aircraft using TCAS II
b) collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability
c) continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision avoidance using TCAS II
d) air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability
69.
When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller’s presentation gives information regarding the aircraft’s indicated flight level that is accurate to within:
a) + or – 50
b) + or – 75 ft
c) + or – 100 ft
d) + or – 25 ft
70.
A mode S transponder will:
a) not respond to interrogations made on mode A
b) respond normally to mode A/C interrogations
c) respond to mode A interrogations but not mode C
d) not respond to mode A/C as it is on the different frequency
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