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RADNAV-RH-CHAPETR15-GPS2
1.
How many clocks are installed in each NAVSTAR/GPS satellite?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
2.
How many satellites from the nominal NAVSTAR/GPS constellation?
a) 36
b) 12
c) 6
d) 24
3.
In order to carry out an independent three-dimensional fix, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and failure detection and exclusion of any faulty satellite, signal reception is required from a minimum number of how many satellites?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 4
d) 5
4.
In what type of nominal orbit are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites placed?
a) Geo-stationary
b) Elliptical
c) Circular
d) Pole to pole
5.
The different segments of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
a) antenna, the receiver and the central control unit (CDU)
b) main control station, the monitoring station and the ground antennas
c) control, space and user
d) atomic clock, power supply and transponder
6.
What is the minimum number of satellites required for the NAVSTAR/GPS to carry out two dimensional operation?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 2
7.
What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
a) Quartz
b) Atomic
c) Mechanical
d) Laser
8.
Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the LAAS (local area augmentation system) of the satellite navigation system of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
a) A LAAS corrects the position of the aircraft by relaying the information via a geo-stationary satellite
b) The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the aircraft position in relation to the LAAS ground reference station
c) A LAAS cannot correct for satellite timing and orbital position error
d) The closer the receiver is to a LAAS ground reference station, the more accurate is the aircraft position fix
9.
How many satellites are required for a 3D fix:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
10.
Where on the Earth would you have the most satellites ‘visible’:
a) At the Equator
b) At the Poles
c) It will be the same anywhere on the Earth
d) Depends on the time of day
11.
What PRN codes are accessible to unauthorised civilian users:
a) C/A only
b) C/A and P codes
c) P code only
d) P and Y code
12.
What happens with RAIM:
a) The ground stations monitor the satellites
b) The satellites monitor the ground stations
c) The receiver monitors the satellites
d) The satellites moinitor the receiver
13.
The role of the transmitter is to:
a) Create the RF signal
b) Modify the RF signal
c) Radiate the audio signal
d) Radiate the RF signal
14.
A transmission of RF energy at a wavelength of 18 metres is in which frequency band?
a) MF
b) LF
c) HF
d) VHF
15.
Propagation errors may cause distortion of the huperbola. They result from:
a) Master and slave signals travelling over different surfaces to reach the receiver
b) Sky wave effect
c) slave signal having a higher frequency than the master
d) Atmospheric refraction
16.
A pseudo range in GNSS is a range based on a:
a) Time measurement using the receiver clock
b) Time measurement using UTC
c) Time measurement using the satellite clock
d) Time measurement using secondary radar principles
17.
The GNSS receiver determines the aeroplane velocity by:
a) Integrating measured change of position with time
b) Determining satellite/aeroplane relative velocities from Doppler shift measurements
c) Determining the Doppler shift of the receiver frequency
d) Determining the rate of change of ‘pseudo ranges’
18.
Satellites are considered to be ‘in view’ for the SPS if they are:
a) More than 10o above the horizon
b) More than 15o above the horizon
c) More than 5o above the horizon
d) Above the horizon
19.
Which of the following affects the User Equivalent Range Error (UERE)?
a) Errors in the receiver processor’s ionospheric model
b) Errors in the receiver clock
c) Failure of the altitude input
d) Poor geometry of satellites
20.
When anti-spoofing is applied it cryptographically:
a) Alters the C/A code to reduce accuracy
b) Alters the P code and the C/A code to a Y code
c) Alters the P code into a Y code and ceases transmission of ‘P’ on L1
d) Alters the P code into a Y code
21.
When setting up the GNSS receiver before use, the present position should be entered because:
a) the receiver cannot acquire the satellites without knowing where it is
b) this will reduce the time to first fix
c) this will allow the map display to function
d) this will help any dependant equipment such as IRS to stabilise
22.
Which of the following is not improved by the application of differential GPS?
a) Multi-path effects
b) Tropospheric delays
c) Satellite clock error
d) Selective availability
23.
The Glonass satellite system differs from the Navstar GPS system in that:
a) the satellites are at a lower orbital height
b) it is intended to use less satellites
c) the orbital paths are at a smaller angle to the plane of the equator
d) the satellites are geostationary
24.
In order to determine ‘Ionospheric delay’ corrections on a civilian aeroplane:
a) The signals from the C/A and P codes are matched
b) The signals from the P code and the Y code are matched
c) An ‘ionospheric delay’ model is stored in the receiver navigation
processor. It is changed every 28 days
d) An ‘ionospheric delay’ model is determined from the satellite Nav message
25.
On an aeroplane the GNSS receiver aerial should be located:
a) On top of the fuselage
b) Below the fuselage in order to protect it from precipitation
c) Anywhere as aerial location is not critical
d) One on top and one below the fuselage so that DGPS can be used
26.
In a Pseudolite DGPS a data link is provided:
a) To communicate satellite position information to the reference station
b) To communicate navigation signals from the satellite to the aeroplane’s
GNSS receiver
c) To communicate DGPS corrections and integrity information to the aeroplane’s GNSS receiver
d) To communicate corrections of clock and position from the reference
station to the satellite
27.
In a Wide Area Augmentation Shystem the corrections for an aeroplane’s GNSS receiver are broadcast:
a) from the monitor stations
b) by the Wide Area master station
c) via a geostationary satellite
d) via the GNSS constellation
28.
In order for a GPS receiver to conduct RAIM it must use a minimum of:
a) Three satellites plus a barometric input
b) Four satellites
c) Five satellites
d) Five satellites plus a barometric input
29.
In GPS the satellite Nav message is repeated:
a) Every 12.5 minutes
b) At a rate of 1 subframe every 12.5 minutes
c) Every 12.5 seconds
d) As dictated by the master control station
30.
The GPS system uses L1 and L2 frequency bands. Which band is used for the P code and which for the C/A code:
a) L1 is modulated with the P code only
b) L1 is modulated with the P and C/A code
c) L2 is modulated with the C/A code only
d) L2 is modulated with the P and C/A code
31.
The height of a GPS satellite above the earth is:
a) 10,900 km
b) 20,200 nm
c) 20,200 km
d) 10,250 nm
32.
Which of the following will cause the greatest GPS error:
a) Ephemeris error
b) Satellite clock error
c) Ionospheric error
d) Latitude error
33.
The coverage of the maritime satellite communications system (INMARSAT) is:
a) Between 70oN and 70oS
b) Between 80oN and 80oS
c) Between 85oN and 85oS
d) Between 90oN and 90oS
34.
The MDA for a non-precision approach using NAVSTAR/GPS is based on:
a) barometric altitude
b) radio altimeter
c) GPS altitude
d) GPS or barometric altitude
35.
If, during a manoeuvre, a satellite being used for position fixing is shadowed by the wing, the effect on position will be:
a) none
b) the position accuracy can be degraded
c) another satellite will be selected, so there will be no degradation of
position
d) The GPS will maintain lock using reflections of the signals from the
fuselage
36.
The positioning of a GNSS serial on an aircraft is:
a) in the fin
b) on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver
c) on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity
d) under the fuselage
37.
Concerning NAVSTAR/GPS orbits, which of the following statements is correct:
a) the inclination of the orbits is 55o with an orbital period of 12 hours
b) the inclination of the orbits is 55o with an orbital period of 24 hours
c) the orbits are geostationary to provide global coverage
d) the orbits are inclined at 65o with an orbital period of 11 hours 15 minutes
38.
The contents of the navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS SVs includes:
a) satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information
b) satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error
c) position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error
d) ionospheric propagation information, X, Y and Z co-ordinates and
corrections, satellite clock time and error
39.
The best accuracy from satellite systems will be provided by:
a) NAVSTAR/GPS and TNSS transit
b) GLONASS and COSPAS/SARSAT
c) GLONASS and TNSS transit
d) NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
40.
The azimuth and elevation of the satellites is:
a) determined by the satellite and transmitted to the receiver
b) determined by the receiver from the satellite almanac data
c) transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac
d) transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac
41.
An aircraft GNSS receiver is using 5 satellites for RAIM. If the receiver deselects one satellite then the flight should be continued:
a) using 4 satellites with the pilot monitoring the receiver output
b) using alternative navigation systems
c) using alternative radio navigation systems only
d) using inertial reference systems only
42.
The number of satellites required to produce a 4D fix is:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
43.
Using differential GNSS for a non-precision approach, the height reference is:
a) barometric
b) GNSS
c) radio
d) radio of GNSS
44.
When using GPS to fly airways, what is the vertical reference used:
a) barometric
b) GPS height
c) radio altitude
d) average of barometric and GPS
45.
RAIM is achieved:
a) by ground monitoring stations determining the satellite range errors which alt relayed to receivers via geo-stationary satellites
b) by ground stations determining the X, Y and Z errors and passing the
corrections to receivers using pseudolites
c) within the receiver
d) any of the above
46.
The WGS 84 model of the earth is:
a) A geoid
b) A sphere
c) A mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
d) An ellipsoid
47.
The frequency band of the NAVSTAR/GPS L1 and L2 frequencies is:
a) VHF
b) UHF
c) EHF
d) SHF
48.
What information can a GPS fix using 4 satellites give:
a) Latitude and longitude
b) Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
c) Latitude, longitude and altitude
d) Latitude, longitude and time
49.
The orbits of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellites are inclined at:
a) 55o to the earth’s axis
b) 55o to the plane of the equator
c) 65o to the earth’s axis
d) 65o to the plane of the equator
50.
The function of the receiver in the GNSS user segment is to:
a) Interrogate the satellites to determine range
b) Track the satellites to calculate time
c) Track the satellites to calculate range
d) Determine position and assess the accuracy of that position
51.
Which GNSS is authorised for use on European Airways:
a) GLONASS
b) NAVSTAR/GPS
c) Galileo
d) COSPAS/SARSAT
52.
In GPS on which frequencies are the C/A and P codes transmitted:
a) Both frequencies
b) The higher frequency
c) Neither frequency
d) The lower frequency
53.
The inclination of a satellite is:
a) The angle between the SV orbit and the equator
b) The angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane
c) 90o minus the angle between the SV orbit and the Equator
d) 90o minus the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane
54.
How is the distance between the NAVSTAR/GPS SV and the receiver determined:
a) By referencing the SV and receiver positions to WGS 84
b) By synchronising the receiver clock with the SV clock
c) By measuring the time from transmission to reception and multiplying by the speed of light
d) By measuring the time from transmission to reception and dividing by the
speed of light
55.
The Navstar satellite system has ___ orbital planes crossing the equator at ___ at an altitude of ___
a) 6; 60 degrees; 10,900 nm
b) 3; 65 degrees; 10,250 km
c) 6; 65 degrees; 10,900 nm
d) 5; 60 degrees; 10,250 nm
56.
The geodetic reference system used to define latitude and longitude by GPS equipment is:
a) UKGRS 90
b) GDR 95
c) OSGB 36
d) WGS 84
57.
The transmission band used by INMARSAT is:
a) HF
b) VHF
c) UHF
d) SHF
58.
The effect of the ionosphere on NAVSTAR/GPS accuracy is:
a) only significant for satellites close to the horizon
b) minimised by averaging the signals
c) minimised by the receivers using a model of the ionosphere to correct the signals
d) negligible
59.
Selective availability may be used to degrade the accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS position.This is achieved by:
a) introducing an offset in the satellite’s clocks
b) random dithering of the broadcast satellites clock time
c) random dithering of the broadcast satellites X, Y and Z co-ordinates
d) introducing an offset in the broadcast satellites X, Y and Z co-ordinates
60.
The orbital height of geostationary satellites is:
a) 15330 km
b) 20180 km
c) 10898 nm
d) 10313 nm
61.
How many satellites are neededfor a 2D fix?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
62.
The nav/system message from GLONASS and NAVSTAR/GPS is found in the ___ band.
a) SHF
b) UHF
c) VHF
d) EHF
63.
The task of the control segment is to:
a) determine availability to users
b) monitor the SV ephemeris and clock
c) apply selective availability
d) all of the above
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