This page requires a JavaScript-enabled browser
Instructions on how to enable your browser are contained in the help file.
RADIO NAV-RH-THEORY-CHAPTER8-GROUND RADAR
1.
Which of the following radar equipments operate by means of the pulse technique?
1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
2. Airborne Weather Radar
3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 2 and 4 only
2.
In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar systems operate?
a) SHF
b) UHF
c) EHF
d) VHF
3.
When in tracking mode, the airborne interrogator operates at:
a) A PRR variable between 24 and 30 pulses per second
b) A PRR fixed at a rate selected from the range 24 to 30 PPS
c) A PRR of 150 PPS
d) A PRR of 2700 PPS
4.
Surface movement radars operate mainly in the SHF band as opposed to the EHF band because:
a) The EHF band does not provide sufficient frequency spacing
b) EHF radiated power is more dangerous to the user’s health
c) EHF is more expensive
d) EHF is likely to detect more moisture in the atmosphere
5.
Which one of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system when compared to a primary radar system?
a) The relatively small ground antenna transmits no side lobes, thus eliminating the danger of false replies from the airborne transponder
b) The required power of transmission from the ground equipment is reduced
c) Possibility of obtaining speed information for aircraft within range
d) Is not limited to line of sight
6.
To double the range of a primary radar, the power must be increased by a factor of:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
7.
An airfield surface movement radar operates in the (i) and rotates at (ii) rpm:
a) (i) SHF; (ii) 120
b) (i) EHF; (ii) 60
c) (i) UHF; (ii) 120
d) (i) SHF; (ii) 60
8.
On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
a) Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
b) Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
c) Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)
d) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
9.
What is a typical range for an EN-route surveillance radar (RSR)?
a) Up to 25 nm
b) Up to 80 nm
c) Up to 250 nm
d) Up to 2.500 nm
10.
The PRF of a primary radar is 500. Its maximum range is:
a) 300 km
b) 150 km
c) 200 km
d) 250 km
11.
Which of the following is a primary radar system?
a) SSR
b) DME
c) GPS
d) AWR
12.
In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
a) pulse length
b) beam width
c) aerial rotation rate
d) Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)
13.
Which of the following types of radar systems are most suited for short range operation?
a) Primary continuous wave
b) Centimetric pulse
c) Millimetric pulse
d) Secondary continuous wave
14.
The maximum range of a ground radar is limited by:
a) pulse width
b) peak power
c) average power
d) pulse recurrence rate
15.
DME is having difficulties in obtaining a “lock-on” while interrogating a ground station. The PRF is:
a) 150 pps for 100 secs then reduces to 60 pps until locked on
b) 150 pps for 15,000 pulse pairs then reduces to 60 pps until locked on
c) 150 pps until locked on
d) 24 pps until locked on
16.
In a primary pulsed radar the ability to discriminate in azimuth is a factor of:
a) Pulse width
b) Beam width
c) Pulse recurrence rate
d) Rate of rotation
17.
A saw tooth voltage is used to generate the time-base of a simple non-rotating radar because:
a) a linear time base is required to correctly represent range and the fly-back period is short
b) range resolution is optimised
c) this achieves the maximum range
d) bearing resolution is optimised
18.
The size of a target on a primary radar screen is governed in azimuth by 9i) and in range by (ii):
a) (i) Beam width; (ii) Pulse length
b) (i) Pulse width; (ii) Pulse length
c) (i) Pulse length; (ii) Beam width
d) (i) Pulse width; (ii) Beam width
19.
What is the typical range for a Terminal Area surveillance Radar (TAR)?
a) Up to 25 nm
b) Up to 80 nm
c) Up to 250 nm
d) Up to 2.500 nm
20.
What is the range of long range ground radar?
a) 200 nm
b) 50 nm
c) 1000 nm
d) 300 nm
21.
Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on frequencies in the (i) band employing an antenna that rotates at approximately (ii) revolutions per minute; it is (iii) possible to determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen.
a) (i) SHF (ii) 10 (iii) always
b) (i) EHF (ii) 30 (iii) never
c) (i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes
d) (i) EHF (ii) 100 (iii) never
22.
A surveillance radar element (SRE) used to provide approach guidance:
a) Does not have a height determination capacity
b) Can be used to give guidance both horizontally and vertically
c) Can only be used to a point 3 miles from threshold
d) May not be used in heavy rain because of the high levels of signal loss
23.
When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller’s presentation gives information regarding the aircraft’s indicated flight level in increments of:
a) 200 FT
b) 100 FT
c) 250 FT
d) 150 FT
24.
In order to be able to penetrate cloud, a primary radar signal must have:
a) a short pulse length
b) a high frequency
c) a long wavelength
d) a high PRF
25.
An ATC radar unit, which is used in the approach, has a high aerial rotation rate. This is so that:
a) Target information is rapidly refreshed
b) Compensation can be made for the long PRI
c) Compensation is made for the narrow beam width
d) The rigidity of the aerial can be improved by inertia
26.
The best radar for measuring very short ranges is:
a) a continuous wave primary radar
b) a pulsed secondary radar
c) pulsed primary radar
d) a continuous wave secondary radar
27.
In a primary radar system:
a) the radar is primarily used for range-finding
b) all radio frequency energy is produced by the radar located at the radar site
c) the aircraft plays the secondary role, just listening to the radar signals from the ground radar
d) the radar is the primary aid for ATC
28.
Why does surface movement radar use a frequency in the SHF band and not EHF?
a) SHF gives better definition of aircraft type than EHF
b) EHF is absorbed and scattered by moisture in the air . Switching to SHF reduced the problem
c) The power requirements of EHF were unsustainable in the UK
d) EHF is potentially hazardous to personnel on the area. This was
completely overcome by switching to SHF
29.
A high resolution surveillance radar will be terminated at a range from touchdown of:
a) 0.25 nm
b) 0.5 nm
c) 1 nm
d) 2 nm
30.
Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?
a) One directional antenna both for transmitting and for receiving
b) A directional antenna for transmitting, and an omni-directional antenna for receiving
c) One directional antenna for transmitting and one for receiving
d) An omni-directional antenna for transmitting, and a directional antenna for receiving
31.
PAR at a military airfield has both azimuth and an elevation element. It must be able to provide an accuracy within:
a) ±30 feet elevation, ±20 feet azimuth
b) ±30 feet azimuth, ±20 feet elevation
c) ±30 feet elevation and azimuth
d) ±20 feet elevation and azimuth
32.
The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
a) 100 NM
b) 200 NM
c) 300 NM
d) 400 NM
33.
An SRA may be flown to:
a) 0.5 nm using QNH unless the pilot advises the controller the approach is to be flown on QFE
b) 2.0 nm using QFE unless the pilot advises the controller the approach is to be flown on QNH
c) 0.5 nm using QNH only
d) 2.0 nm using QFE only
34.
The best picture on a primary radar will be obtained using:
a) Low frequency, narrow beam
b) Short wavelength, narrow beam
c) High frequency, wide beam
d) Long wavelength, wide beam
35.
An aerodrome ground movement radar is likely to operate in the ___ band with a scan rate of ___ revolutions per minute.
a) EHF, 1000
b) EHF, 20
c) UHF, 200
d) SHF, 60
This is more feedback!
This is the feedback!
Data Base Login Information: Please make
sure that you enter your name before
submitting your results.
My Name
*Enter your name here
Back to Top
