This page requires a JavaScript-enabled browser
Instructions on how to enable your browser are contained in the help file.
TECHGEN-SB-ELECT-TOTAL-TEST&LEARN
1.
Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it can be said that the:
a) exciter control relay opens.
b) exciter control relay and the generator breaker open
c) exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open.
d) generator breaker opens.
2.
The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is:
a) 800 revolutions per minute.
b) 1600 revolutions per minute.
c) 6000 revolutions per minute.
d) 12000 revolutions per minute
3.
The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths:
a) hectometric.
b) metric
c) centimetric.
d) decimetric.
4.
The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths:
a) decimetric.
b) hectometric or kilometric
c) metric.
d) centimetric.
5.
Direct current generators are connected:
a) in series to provide maximum voltage.
b) in parallel to provide maximum power
c) in series to provide maximum power.
d) in parallel to provide maximum voltage.
6.
A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance between the:
a) shunt exciter and the series winding turn.
b) generator and the series winding turn.
c) voltage coil and the series winding.
d) voltage coil and the series winding turn
7.
The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are:
a) compound wound.
b) shunt wound.
c) series wound
d) series shunt wound.
8.
The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is:
a) 1,2 volts.
b) 2,2 volts
c) 1,8 volts.
d) 1,4 volts.
9.
In an alternator rotor coil you can find:
a) Only induced current.
b) Three-phase AC.
c) AC
d) DC.
10.
In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:
a) diskette drive
b) hard disk drive
c) printer
d) keyboar
11.
To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel:
a) only real loads need to be matched.
b) both real an reactive loads must be matched
c) only reactive loads need to be matched.
d) the matching of loads is unimportant.
12.
Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often referred to as the:
a) "all or nothing" gate.
b) "any or all" gate
c) "state indicator" gate.
d) "inhibited" or "negated" gate.
13.
In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in parallel, it is necessary to ensure that:
a) adequate voltage differences exists.
b) the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system.
c) equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling.
d) their voltages are almost equal
14.
A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at:
a) 45°.
b) 90°.
c) 60°.
d) 120°
15.
When the supply frequency in a circuit with a capacitor is increased, the current in this circuit will:
a) remain the same.
b) decrease.
c) increase
d) be zero.
16.
On an aeroplane using AC as primary power supply, the batteries are charged in flight from:
a) a DC transformer and rectifier.
b) a static inverter.
c) a Transformer Rectifier Unit
d) the AC bus via current limiters.
17.
Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on, an ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery:
a) indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately.
b) indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charge.
c) would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists
d) indicates a faulty reverse current relay.
18.
In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following frequencies:
a) H
b) UHF
c) VLF
d) VHF
19.
In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following frequencies:
a) VHF
b) UHF
c) VLF
d) H
20.
The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:
a) 2.46
b) 24.60 cm
c) 24.60 m
d) 2.46 cm
21.
If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery:
a) has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used.
b) has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used.
c) is unserviceable
d) has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used.
22.
When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the:
a) energizing current
b) voltage.
c) frequency.
d) torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).
23.
In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of pairs of poles required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
a) 12
b) 24
c) 8
24.
In an AC power generation system, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD):
1 - can be disconnected from the drive shaft.
2 - can be disconnected from the generator.
3 - is a hydro-mechanical system.
4 - is an electronic system.
5 - can not be disconnected during flight.
6 - can be disconnected during flight.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 4, 5
b) 1, 3,
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 5
25.
An inverter is a:
a) unit used to convert DC into AC
b) device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.
c) filter against radio interference.
d) static discharger.
26.
The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to:
a) mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling.
b) maintain a constant frequency
c) take part in the voltage regulation.
d) take part in the balancing of reactive loads.
27.
The type of gate which requires all conditions with logic 1 for engagement is:
a) AND
b) OR.
c) NOR.
d) NAND.
28.
The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 12 cm is:
a) 3600 MHz.
b) 2500 kHz.
c) 360 MHz.
d) 2500 MHz
29.
The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency of 75 MHz is:
a) 40 m.
b) 7.5 m.
c) 75 m.
d) 4 m
30.
The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency 118.7 MHz is:
a) 2.53 m
b) 25.3 m.
c) 2.53 cm.
d) 25.3 cm.
31.
When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the:
a) torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).
b) frequency or load controller.
c) voltage controller.
d) excitation current
32.
The power required for field excitation of the main rotor in modern constant-frequency alternators is directly controlled by:
a) the voltage regulator
b) a battery.
c) an excitation alternator with a permanent magnet generator.
d) an AC generator.
33.
The alternators, when connected, are usually connected:
a) In parallel mode
b) Dependent on the type of engine.
c) Dependent on the type of generator.
d) In series mode.
34.
Alternating current can be derived from direct current by:
a) an inverter
b) an alternating current motor.
c) the use of relays.
d) a series wound motor.
35.
When a persistent under excitation fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft mains with another AC generator, the protection device opens:
a) the exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker
b) the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
c) the tie breaker.
d) the generator control relay and the generator breaker.
36.
On detection of a persistent phase unbalance on an AC generator connected to the aircraft mains, with another AC generator, the protection device opens:
a) the generator breaker.
b) the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
c) the exciter control relay and the generator breaker.
d) the tie breaker
37.
A static converter is powered by:
a) alternating current on input, direct current on output.
b) alternating current on input, alternating current on output.
c) direct current on input, direct current on output.
d) direct current on input, alternating current output
38.
In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted, the changeover relay allows:
a) power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar
b) connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar.
c) connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.
d) connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar.
39.
The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are:
1. Weight saving
2. Easy fault detection
3. Increase of short-circuit risk
4. Reduction of short-circuit risk
5. Circuits are not single-wired lines.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 3, 5
b) 1, 2,
c) 2, 3, 5
d) 1, 2, 3
40.
Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:
1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects.
2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volt
3. reduce radio interference on radio communication systems
4. set the aircraft to a single potential
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 4
c) 1, 3,
d) 3, 4
41.
The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is:
a) 1 metre.
b) 100 metres.
c) 1000 metres
d) 10 metres.
42.
The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the VHF direction finder is a:
a) cathode-ray tube.
b) VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
c) VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.
d) VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range
43.
The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths:
a) hectometric.
b) decimetric.
c) metric
d) centimetric.
44.
The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths:
a) hectometric.
b) centimetric.
c) decimetric.
d) metric
45.
The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths:
a) centimetric.
b) decimetric
c) hectometric.
d) metric.
46.
The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:
a) decimetric
b) myriametric.
c) hectometric.
d) metric.
47.
A thermal circuit breaker:
a) uses electromagnetic trip system to prevent over heating.
b) can be re-engaged without any danger even if the fault remains.
c) protects the system in the event of overload/overheating
d) limits any overcurrent.
48.
The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator that:
a) must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily coupled with the latter.
b) is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up.
c) is driven at constant speed through a Constant Speed Drive (CSD), in the same way as the main AC generator.
d) supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200 V, 400 Hz AC
49.
A magnetic circuit-breaker is:
a) a protection system that has a quick tripping response
b) permits an overcurrent limited in time.
c) can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.
d) is a system with a slow response time.
50.
The conditions to be met to activate a shunt generator are:
1. presence of a permanent field
2. closed electrical circuit
3. generator terminals short-circuited
4. minimum rotation speed
The combination of correct statements is:
a) 1,
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2
51.
A "Zener" diode is used for:
a) rectification.
b) digital displays.
c) reverse current protection.
d) voltage stabilization
52.
To reverse the direction of rotation of shunt-type (parallel field) DC electric motor, it is necessary to:
a) connect a phase-shift capacitor to the field circuit.
b) reverse the polarity of either the stator and the rotor
c) change the connections from shunt to series.
d) reverse the polarity of the motor connections.
53.
The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are:
1. simple connection
2. high starting torque
3. flexibility in use
4. lighter weight of equipment
5. easy to convert into direct current
6. easy maintenance of machines.
The combination of correct statements is:
a) 3, 4, 5,
b) 1, 4, 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
54.
On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel. Their advantages are:
1. low risk of thermal runaway
2. high internal resistance, hence higher power
3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating
4. wider permissible temperature range
5. good storage capability
6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing
7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging.
The combination of correct statement is:
a) 3, 4, 5,
b) 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
d) 3, 4, 6, 7
55.
On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device opens:
a) The generator breaker and tie breaker.
b) the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker.
c) The generator breaker.
d) the exciter breaker and the generator breaker
56.
When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the mains with another AC generator, the over excitation protection device opens:
a) the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
b) the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker
c) the generator breaker.
d) the tie breaker.
57.
When an under speed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC bus bar, the protection device opens the:
a) exciter breaker.
b) generator breaker
c) exciter breaker and generator breaker.
d) exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
58.
The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in:
a) parallel with the armature.
b) parallel with the shunt field coil.
c) series with the shunt field coil
d) series with the armature.
59.
On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator is activated by:
a) the main field winding.
b) the auxiliary winding.
c) a set of permanent magnets
d) the stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator.
60.
The capacity of an accumulator is:
a) The quantity of electricity that the battery can supply during discharge
b) The number of cycles (charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without deterioration of its cells.
c) The no-load voltage of the battery multiplied by its rated output current.
d) The intensity withstood by the battery during charging.
61.
The purpose of static wick dischargers is to:
a) dissipate static charge of the aircraft in flight thus avoiding radio interference as a result of static electricity
b) provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.
c) be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.
d) dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing.
62.
The output of a generator is controlled by:
a) varying the field strength
b) the reverse current relay circuit breaker.
c) varying the speed of the engine.
d) varying the length of wire in the armature windings.
63.
The rating of electrical fuses is expressed in:
a) volts.
b) watts.
c) ohms.
d) amperes
64.
A relay is:
a) a magnetically operated switch
b) a device that is used to increase electrical power.
c) a unit that is used to convert electrical energy to heat energy.
d) another name for a solenoid valve.
65.
The capacity of a battery is given in:
a) Ohms.
b) Watts.
c) Ampere hours
d) Amperes/volts.
66.
It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if:
a) static noises can be heard on the radio
b) a circuit breaker pops out.
c) there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.
d) there is interference on the VOR receiver.
67.
In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is:
a) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels
b) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain.
c) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain, increased by 10 kHz at each end.
d) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 20 decibels.
68.
Static dischargers:
1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential
2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge
3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volts
4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce interference with the on-board radio communication systems to a minimum
5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified clouds
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1,2,5.
b) 1,3,4.
c) 2,4,5
d) 3,4,5.
69.
A relay is:
a) An electromagnetically operated switch
b) An electrical energy conversion unit.
c) An electrical security switch.
d) A switch specially designed for AC circuits.
70.
The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is:
a) 200 Hz.
b) 400 Hz
c) 60 Hz.
d) 50 Hz.
71.
Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will:
a) change the direction of the excitation current.
b) maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.
c) increase the intensity of the excitation current
d) decrease the intensity of the excitation current.
72.
The so-called "hot buses" or "direct buses" are:
a) automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed.
b) directly connected to the battery
c) kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure.
d) providing an alternative current.
73.
In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the:
a) pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again.
b) pilot has to throttle back.
c) pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.
d) pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight
74.
The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is ..
a) To change AC into DC.
b) To avoid a short circuit.
c) To change DC into AC
d) To change the DC voltage.
75.
The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators (dynamos) is that the:
a) induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the dynamos have a fixed inductor (field) coil
b) alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush assemblies.
c) induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary inductor coil.
d) The alternators generate much less power than DC generators.
76.
Skip distance is the:
a) thickness of the ionosphere
b) range from the transmitter to the first sky wav
c) wavelength distance of a certain frequency
d) highest critical frequency distance
77.
A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called:
a) propagation
b) attenuatio
c) refraction
d) ducting
78.
In computer technology, an output peripheral is a:
a) keyboard
b) hard disk drive
c) diskette drive
d) screen uni
79.
In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a:
a) key board
b) screen unit
c) hard disk driv
d) printer
80.
The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following change in circumstance occurs:
a) Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
b) Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
c) Lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
d) Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric laye
81.
A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would involve:
a) checking the battery voltage "off-load".
b) checking the discharge current of the battery "on-load".
c) checking the level of the electrolyte.
d) comparing the "on-load" and "off-load" battery voltages
82.
When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply system, the:
a) load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.
b) loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning
c) fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn.
d) component will operate normally, but will not switch off.
83.
When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is achieved by:
a) the synchronous bus-bar.
b) an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage regulators, varies the field excitation current of the generators
c) carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures.
d) an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the generators.
84.
Because of the connection in parallel of electrical equipments on an AC bus bar, isolation of individual equipments:
a) increases the bus bar voltage.
b) decreases the bus bar voltage.
c) increases the bus bar current consumption.
d) decreases the bus bar current consumption
85.
In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained from:
a) a rectifier.
b) an inverter
c) a TRU.
d) a contactor.
86.
If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a magnetic field:
a) a force will be exerted on the conductor
b) the current will increase.
c) the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease.
d) there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved.
87.
The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the:
a) rotor
b) stator.
c) oscillator.
d) slip ring.
88.
The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to:
a) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
b) drive the generator at a constant speed
c) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator.
d) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
89.
If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the phase relation between both generators:
a) must be synchronised.
b) must be 120° out of phase.
c) must be 240° out of phase.
d) is unimportant
90.
A bus-bar is:
a) a device which may only be used in DC circuits.
b) a distribution point for electrical power
c) the stator of a moving coil instrument.
d) a device permitting operation of two or more switches together.
91.
A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s) for disconnection are:
a) slight variation about the normal operating frequency.
b) excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.
c) illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light.
d) low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator drive
92.
A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight:
a) automatically resets at engine shut-down.
b) may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism.
c) may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down
d) automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value.
93.
When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter:
a) the load condition is unimportant.
b) no load should be applied to the battery because it would depress the voltage.
c) a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition
d) the battery should be isolated.
94.
Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of:
a) 12 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
b) 12 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
c) 24 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
d) 24 volts, 40 ampere-hours
95.
When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field:
a) the field will collapse.
b) there will be no effect on the conductor.
c) current will flow in accordance with Flemings left hand rule.
d) an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor
96.
The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the:
a) generator at varying loads and speeds
b) batteries at varying loads.
c) TRU.
d) generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads.
97.
A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to:
a) allow a short term overload before rupturing
b) limit the current in the armature.
c) limit the current in the field circuit.
d) instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load.
98.
The purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to:
a) prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.
b) isolate all components electrically.
c) provide a single earth for electrical devices.
d) provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents
99.
On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with means of monitoring the:
a) oil temperature and synchronous speed.
b) oil over-temperature and low oil pressure
c) output speed and oil pressure.
d) low oil temperature and low oil quantity.
100.
An AC generator driven by a CSD unit:
a) requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load
b) requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency.
c) does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load.
d) does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage.
101.
Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected:
a) at flight idle engine rpm only.
b) on the ground only.
c) when the AC generator voltage is outside limits.
d) provided the engine is running
102.
When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship of each generator:
a) must be synchronous.
b) must be 90° out of synchronisation.
c) must be in opposition.
d) is unimportant
103.
When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same:
a) amperage and kVAR.
b) frequency and amperage.
c) voltage and frequency
d) voltage and amperage.
104.
The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are:
a) kVA and kVAR
b) volts and amperes.
c) volts and kilowatts.
d) amperes and kilowatts.
105.
"Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system means the generator:
a) output frequency is too high.
b) output frequency varies with engine speed
c) output frequency is too low.
d) voltage regulator is out of adjustment.
106.
In an aeroplane fitted with a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a:
a) transformer rectifier unit (TRU)
b) 3 phase current transformer unit.
c) rotary converter.
d) static inverter.
107.
Regarding Ohm's law:
a) The current in a circuit is directly proportional to voltage
b) The current in a circuit is inversely proportional to voltage.
c) The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.
d) The power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current.
108.
A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which:
a) can be reset at any time.
b) is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic.
c) will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit.
d) will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the circuit
109.
When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the:
a) electrolyte to "boil".
b) current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.
c) voltage to increase due to the current available.
d) voltage to decrease under load
110.
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the:
a) number of individual poles and the field strength.
b) number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part
c) number of individual poles only.
d) field strength and the speed of the moving part.
111.
Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be:
a) used in AC and DC circuits
b) used only in AC circuits.
c) used only in DC circuits.
d) reset at any time.
112.
The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to:
a) drive the generator at a constant speed
b) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
c) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
d) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of engine and generator.
113.
The Central Processing Unit (CPU) of a computer essentially consists of:
1. an Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
2. a control and timing unit
3. Registers.
The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
a) 1,2
b) 2,3
c) 1,3
d) 1,2,
114.
Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the:
a) "all or nothing" gate
b) "any or all" gate.
c) "inhibited" or "negated" gate.
d) "state indicator" gate.
115.
A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is:
a) a thermistor.
b) an AC generator.
c) a transformer rectifier unit.
d) an inverter
116.
The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to:
a) ensure the input signal is DC only.
b) invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state
c) ensure the input signal is AC only.
d) ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input signal.
117.
Regarding (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker:
a) (1) is suitable for high currents, (2) is not suitable for high currents.
b) (1) and (2) are not resettable.
c) (1) is not suitable for high currents, (2) is suitable for high currents.
d) (1) is not resettable, (2) is resettable
118.
A condenser in parallel with breaker points will
a) assist in negative feedback to secondary coil
b) assist in collapse of secondary winding.
c) permit arcing across points
d) intensify current in secondary windin
119.
A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring
a) that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding the generator RPM
b) that the electric generator produces a constant frequency
c) equal AC voltage from all generators.
d) that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the engine.
120.
In an on-board computer, the software is
a) resident in a random access memory (RAM)
b) resident in a read-only memory (REPROM, EEPROM,...
c) loaded from a hard disk
d) loaded from a floppy disk
121.
On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:
1. AC generator over-voltage
2. AC generator under-voltage
3. over-current
4. over-speed
5. under-frequency
6. undue vibration of AC generators.
The combination of correct statements is:
a) 1,2,4,
b) 1,2,4,6
c) 2,3,4,5,6
d) 1,3,5,6
122.
The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following formula:
a) Req = R1 x R2
b) 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)
c) Req = R1 + R2
d) 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R
123.
In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly found:
a) at night and when raining.
b) at night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves
c) by day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves.
d) by day and when raining.
124.
The purpose of a battery control unit is generally to isolate the battery:
1 - from the bus when the battery charge has been completed
2 - when there is a battery overheat condition
3 - in case of an internal short circuit
4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit.
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
a) 1 - 2 - 3 -4
b) 1
c) 1 - 2
d) 1 - 2 -
125.
The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amp hours batteries, will create a unit with the following characteristics;
a) 24 volt / 80 amp hours
b) 24 volt / 40 amp hours
c) 12 volt / 80 amp hour
d) 12 volt / 40 amp hours
126.
The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on...
a) the strength of the excitation current
b) its rotation spee
c) its phase balance
d) its load
127.
The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the:
a) generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is tru
b) battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
c) battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
d) alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
128.
(For this question use annex 021- 6660A-PRECEDING SLIDE) The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic):
a) an INVERT or NOT gate
b) a NOR gate.
c) a NAND gate.
d) an EXCLUSIVE gate.
This is more feedback!
This is the feedback!
Data Base Login Information: Please make
sure that you enter your name before
submitting your results.
My Name
*Enter your name here
Back to Top